Regret
This is the scripture that some Christians use to validate their claim to the infallibility of the Bible.
They justify this through the following:
Verse sixteen in Greek:
"pasa grafh qeopneustov kai wfelimov prov didaskalian, prov elegmon, prov epanorqwsin, prov paideian thn en dikaiosunh|,"
"qeopneustov" is the Greek term translated into "given by inspiration."
"theopneustos" or "qeopneustov" has, as a portion of the origin, "pneu" which is translated "breath."
It is then inferred that use of the term is referring to God-breathed and not the more narrow definition of the actual term used in the writing of this verse.
This inference then leads them to the inference that since God is perfect, and Scripture is God-breathed, that the text must be infallible.
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Is it me, or is this the largest amount of crap you have ever heard? In my opinion, it is a very desperate attempt at saving a false belief.
If you support the idea of an infallible Bible, and use this verse as support, which I believe is the only support they use for this, or at least the crux of the concept, I would like a link or reference to a non-Christian linguist who could substantiate this translation and interpretation.
They justify this through the following:
Verse sixteen in Greek:
"pasa grafh qeopneustov kai wfelimov prov didaskalian, prov elegmon, prov epanorqwsin, prov paideian thn en dikaiosunh|,"
"qeopneustov" is the Greek term translated into "given by inspiration."
"theopneustos" or "qeopneustov" has, as a portion of the origin, "pneu" which is translated "breath."
It is then inferred that use of the term is referring to God-breathed and not the more narrow definition of the actual term used in the writing of this verse.
This inference then leads them to the inference that since God is perfect, and Scripture is God-breathed, that the text must be infallible.
________________________________________
Is it me, or is this the largest amount of crap you have ever heard? In my opinion, it is a very desperate attempt at saving a false belief.
If you support the idea of an infallible Bible, and use this verse as support, which I believe is the only support they use for this, or at least the crux of the concept, I would like a link or reference to a non-Christian linguist who could substantiate this translation and interpretation.