IIRC as to why the scenes were left out, it was said that it was like like Batman taking on a couple of punks, ie, quick and uninteresting.
After wolverine surprised him and chopped his arm off and poked out his eye, hulk and thing rushed him together and despite having no depth perception and just one arm to fight with (not to mention no odin force and only his crippled physical ability) they were both dead so quickly Marvel didnt bother drawing in the scenes.
Wolvering didn't chop off Thor's arm, in the scene that he slashed Thor, you can see his arm is still in tact, just wounded. The fight between Thor and the others was not a quick one, in the scene in which Hulk and Thing lay dead, Thor says "You fought me for hours". In that very same scene it can be seen that Thor is missing his left arm, and he is scuffed, cut and battered. He did not effortlessly put down Hulk and Thing, as it is shown they battled for hours and it cost Thor his left arm. In the next scene Captain America is able to knock down thor with a kick, the fight with The Hulk and thing obviously took alot out of him.
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Last edited by Board Walker on Feb 25th, 2006 at 08:17 AM
If in saying that he is talking to the dead and unresponsive corpses of the hulk and the thing then Marvel might have simply wanted to save a few pages to save a few bucks rather than the excuse they gave that it was an easy fight. But then again they did say it was an easy fight. How could it not be when thor is fighting with one arm. I think its pretty well understood that wolverine sliced off the arm. Are you suggesting that the hulk or thing somehow removed a portion of thor's arm? The only character to ever break his bones was the destroyer who is far more powerful than thing or hulk.
The scans show his arm is still intact prior to his fight with Hulk and Thing, and yes the fight between Hulk and Thing was hours in length, it is stated in the scans, he didnt beat them in one minute, then sit around for hours then decide to make that statement. And yes it is possible, probable even that Hulk and or Thing ripped off Thor's wounded arm, if wolvering can cut it, then Hulk or Thing can rip it off. Thor looked pretty ruffed up after that fight, to the point of being able to be taken down by one kick from a tired looking captain america.
Wolverine did cut it and even against Desak it was the odinpower that kept thor alive, similarly it was probably the odinpower keeping his body together after it was sliced through. If not the odinpower it could not have been much holding it on if the thing or hulk were, after all these fights where they couldnt do any serious damage were able to rip it off all together.
If the fight was very long, thats fine with me, and certainly would make sense given that one of them had only one arm to fight with. Even if the fight took a week, the fact that both the thing and the hulk ended up dead to just regular thor with one arm and no odin power or hammer should be an indication of the true relative strength of regular thor when he is uninhibited. In the blood and thunder series his strength kept increasing with his madness and he took out a Power Gemed Drax with one hit. Once he had the power gem, thanos was remarkable able to fight toe-to-toe with him, which says more about thanos i think, but said that eventually he would get free and kill them all. In other words, thor's power was still growing, or rather, unveiling itself.
1) You said the following: '
Power is a combination of force and speed. Assuming that we are talking about a fixed amount of power, then more speed = less force.'
In essence you are saying that the faster Superman goes the less force he will have.
That is baloney (politely speaking), and against F=MxA.
The faster Superman goes, meaning the faster he accelerates towards the greater speed, the more force he will apply.
That goes against what you were saying (and unless you are willing to rewrite some of the most basic bastions of Physics just admit you are wrong).
2) Now, in the post above you put the following formula:
P=FxV.
Power is basically energy (or work) transferred per unit time,and the formula you put basically states it in the form of the object's force multiplied by the object's velocity.
Thus it is an accurate formula.
However just because you can jot down a formula accurately doesn't mean squat if you do not comprehend its application (and the way you explained the whole thing,including your nice lil' numbers, shows rudementary comprehension at best).
P=FV
Correct.
However that can be expanded into the following:
P=FV
= (funct. of) F x s. where F is force, and s. is displacement
= (funct. of) (MA).s where F is broken down to Mass x Accel.
Now, guess what happens when Superman starts to move faster (in other words, when his rate of speed increases ....otherwise known as acceleration)?
His A goes up, and thus F (being equal to M.A) goes up as well.
Consequently F is higher, and with P being equal to F.V the power he can do goes up.
Thus there is no rationale for you to say that power remains constant. That is an irrational (and incorrect) assumption.
Let's go to the real world.
The US is working on an anti-ballistic missile program, whereby a kill vehicle is mounted on a missile.
The kill vehicle has absolutely no explosives .....the way in which it destroys the incoming ICBMs (as opposed to the 1960s Sprint and Spartan programs that entailed nuclear warheads), is by using kinetic energy to smash into the ICBM and vaporize it.
To do this it accelerates to tremendous speed (hypersonic), and even though it is a relatively small KV it still produces enough force to literally turn the oncoming missile to dust.
Now, according to your post, the faster the KV went then the less force it would have!
You said the following: ...if V increases (the speed at which he moves), his F decreases (the Force he can apply). Get it? .....
Hmmm, you ARE saying that the faster an object moves (the faster its rate of speed increase, i.e acceleration, is) that the less F becomes.
An increase of V means that acceleration is taking place; i.e it goes from V1 to V2 over a period of time. And you are saying that when that happens Force decreases!
I'm sorry, but that is inane.
(BTW ...if you can coherently prove otherwise you just nabbed yourself a Nobel prize in physics).
if you throw a bullet at someone it wont hurt them if you shoot it and its super fast it will hurt them so how can you say that the faster it goes the less power it uses