Originally posted by JesusIsAlive
God is holy, just, and righteous, so we must construe and understand all of His actions in the Bible through that lens if you will.
"Even so, the destruction was directed more at the Canaanite religion (Deuteronomy 7:3-5, 12:2-3) than at the Canaanite people per se. The judgment was not ethnically motivated. " - Link #1
No internal contradiction there, no not at all. It wasn't like religion was a part of their ethnicity. Of course it was. Of course the examples above this quote in the link would all be said if a group were targeting someone's ethnicity. Victors also write the history books don't they (in this case it isn't a history book)
"Besides dealing with national sins, God used the conquest of Canaan to create a religious/historical context in which He could eventually introduce the Messiah to the world. This Messiah would bring salvation not only to Israel, but also to Israel’s enemies, including Canaan (Psalm 87:4-6; Mark 7:25-30)."
Except for that little footnote: CANAAN IS GONE! Why didn't this god character introduce the messiah to save the cannanite people?
How exposed were the Canaanites really to the god character and his morals? Well considering the time it may have been unlikely they got any copies of the ten commandments. We take it for granted now, but mediums for writing, plus any language differences.
Also a cultural barrier. Each would have grown up believing in their own gods, goddesses, or whatever. They would have been fully convinced like any of the Israelites at that time that their god was the real one. God new from the start what it would take to convince them, and he knew he could do it non violently-as he is all powerful no?
Another criticism why use the Israelites for his dirty work, and end their lives, and mentally disturb them from killing men, women, and children alike. And FORCING them to break one of his commandments
Now more then ever I can say that the crusades were not against the teachings of the bible. ESPICIALLY by the justifications given for it in this article.
NEXT
Link #2
"What many fail to understand is that slavery in biblical times was very different from the slavery that was practiced in the past few centuries in many parts of the world."
Yet it doesn't deny IT WAS SLAVERY. People owning people.
"The Bible does not specifically condemn the practice of slavery. It gives instructions on how slaves should be treated (Deuteronomy 15:12-15; Ephesians 6:9; Colossians 4:1)"
However it misses
However, you may purchase male or female slaves from among the foreigners who live among you. You may also purchase the children of such resident foreigners, including those who have been born in your land. You may treat them as your property, passing them on to your children as a permanent inheritance. You may treat your slaves like this, but the people of Israel, your relatives, must never be treated this way. (Leviticus 25:44-46 NLT)
It is OK if they are foreign, and yes they are your property, forever.
If you buy a Hebrew slave, he is to serve for only six years. Set him free in the seventh year, and he will owe you nothing for his freedom. If he was single when he became your slave and then married afterward, only he will go free in the seventh year. But if he was married before he became a slave, then his wife will be freed with him. If his master gave him a wife while he was a slave, and they had sons or daughters, then the man will be free in the seventh year, but his wife and children will still belong to his master. But the slave may plainly declare, 'I love my master, my wife, and my children. I would rather not go free.' If he does this, his master must present him before God. Then his master must take him to the door and publicly pierce his ear with an awl. After that, the slave will belong to his master forever. (Exodus 21:2-6 NLT)
Holding his family hostage? for permanent slavery eh? Even in the afterlife key word FOREVER.
When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment. (Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)
Oh biblical family values? At least they aren't selling her to foreigners eh?
"When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)"
hit them really hard, but not too hard they die right away. Seriously keep them alive for a couple days after all they are YOUR PROPERTY.
So I think your second link was a huge bust. So yes slavery is OK, but you have to follow some rules. It is still slavery. You are still OWNING other people as property.
So do you have some more links to send my way, or your own ideas going to showing. However these links probably reflected them already so no need. Don't lie admit your defeat.
I just hope you know better than those in 1100 AD, and not start killing people over it.