The people never had the right to elect the President!
We have been told over the years, by politicians no less, that voting is our duty, but what is most peculiar is that voting is not a right in the USA!
The United States Constitution and its Amendments does not explicitly give people the right to vote at all! The original Constitution only allowed the people to vote for the House of Representatives.
Does Anyone know why ?
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Becuase initially the framers of this country thought that the general population lacked the intelligence or insight to vote properly so they simply did not include it.. Alexander Hamilton was a huge propenent of this
Why is the Canadian telling Americans about their constitution?
Anyway, from my text:
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.
Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
Also Amendment XV and XXVI.
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That is just a provision to amend the right on who is to vote; in that case its SEX cause women simply did not have the right to Vote.
The others were :
Landless white men: ratified in 1856
Non-whites: ratified in 1870
Women: ratified in 1918 (what you have quoted)
Native Americans: ratified in 1924
Adults 18 and over: ratified in 1971
As bilb said, it was done purposely by Hamilton. And was done for 2 extreme reasons.
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Your point has nothing to do with the argument that NOT 1 of the amendments gives the EXPLICIT RIGHT TO VOTE FOR THE PRESIDENT:
The one ratified in 1971 of Adults over 18 says:
The right of citizens of the United States, who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of age.
U.S. presidents are elected to four-year terms by 538 Electoral College voters, one per senator and representative from each state, plus three from the District of Columbia.
In 38 states, the voters are required by law to vote for the candidate who won the popular voter in their state, although all electors usually cast a ballot for the popular vote winner. A candidate must receive a majority of 270 votes to win the election.
NOW DO YOU UNDERSTAND WHY THERE IS NO AMENDMENT THAT GIVES NO US CITIZEN THE EXPLICIT RIGHT TO VOTE FOR THE PRESIDENT ????
Now take back your 'full of shit' statement
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Gee, I've been disconnected with our recent history...But, I do know the ancient facts...
Your right...in the beginning of the country, we've always been allowed to vote for all important issuers. JUST THE WAY IT WAS....The process was always important.
The only point GCG has is that the people do not directly elect the president. Which IMO is a tad wrong but well not my country.
And well Gryn Jabar, if GCG is right about his 38 states statement then there are 12 states in which the respresentatives have the right not to listen to the people.
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Hmm the real problem is the "The Winner Takes it all" system the Anglic Countries have...it makes the elections unfair....not in all cases but sometimes it happens...I don't want to sound like I think the german system is the best..but it has some ery good ideas (it had enough time to try )