Originally posted by finti
why not
I am not sure how to answer that, going by my understanding of morals I'd agree with you, but by the ones I made for myself I can just say, are you serious?.....why torture them before they are found guilty (or what if they are not?)
Originally posted by xmarksthespot
I didn't bring up the example. However there is an intrinsic inconsistency in vehemently supporting the concept of "Innocent until proven guilty." and yet allowing police officers the discretion to effectively punish people (with what amounts to a death sentence) for crimes uncommitted on the basis of pure suspicion.
The example is in fact a valid one, from what is currently known, it amounts to the summary extrajudicial execution of an innocent man within the "system" you love to refer to, at the time, but not in retrospect.
It just is a whole different thiong, it'S like I am saying apples are red but you answer isn't there an inconsistency since bananas are yellow.
It is a whole different thing, the government say "every person is innocent until proven guilty".
In a second sentence the government say, "If a police officer is in danger he has the righjt to protect his life"
That are two different things, the government doesn't say treat the suspect as guiltxy but it says if you are in danger you have the same right every other human being in this world has, you are allowed to protect yourself. If you don't see that first this doesn't have anthing tod do with the other law and second that it is important and rightly put in the law code then I don't know what's wrong with you.
Not to forget that the government puts in a third law that even keeps the second balanced, "Every usage odf the second law will lead to an investigation and if unjustly used to a trial"