Originally posted by Regret
I agree that it is not the infallible word of God. I believe it to be an account of God's dealings with man as well as a history of a group of people. Lot was discussed because he dealt with God's messengers, not because of any point being made.
So to you, the bible is nothing more than a history book? All the moral lessons in there are coincidental? I think that's probably more of a "downplay" of the bible than I've ever heard from even the most stubborn atheist. Even when people call it a "fairy tale" at least you can learn something from a fairy tale."
Really, I think you are just looking for a loophole where the bible can still be viewed as a credible source yet doesn't have to take responsibility for the messages conveyed in the stories. I find it no coincidence that everytime they get down to intimate details of a certain person or people there is a moral message to be found. When the bible was arranged I think these stories were kept for a specific reason, and i'll continue to judge the book based on the messages it conveys.
We are not off topic. We are discussing the validity of the method you used in your interpretation, and comparing/contrasting that interpretation with my own. The method of interpretation is integral to interpretation of that story. What the Bible is effects any interpretation made.
Your interpretation of the story? From what i understand your "interpretation" is that it's just a history book and the message means nothing. But apparently even though it's GOD'S history book God might've punished Lot's daughters without it making it into the story, for whatever reason you can think of..
"We can't assume anything that wasn't mentioned happen, we can only base our interpretations on what WAS said." You are assuming consent based on something "that wasn't mentioned." You cannot base an interpretation on this verse as condemning or condoning the action based "on what WAS said." Although, if the Bible is consistent it does condemn this type of act, and thus it can be more strongly inferred as an act that was condemned than it could be inferred as condoning.
You CAN assume that God didn't condemn the acts because it didn't mention God condemning the act and the very point of the Bible according to me is to convey Christian morality and according to you is to record the history of God's interaction with Abraham's descendants. Either way, if God had condemned Lot's daughters it should have been recorded. If it's the moral message then it's obvious why it should have, and if it's just a historical passage then it should have been included for historical accuracy.
But by the way, whether or not God condemned Lot's daughters isn't a vital part of the point I was making with my first post. That was just an addition, the part where Lot offers his daughters to be raped by the crowds of men and still receives deliverance from the Lord is quite enough for this story to have one ****ed up moral message.