Originally posted by willRulesthe Egyptians never created the English language so....ummm no 🙄 there was some stuff going on in the world between egypt and current history.
Are you insinuating that speech post ancient Egyptian era is "broken"???? 😕
"Submit! Come, cleave unto me -- and know the joy of eternal darkness."
"Foolish insects! Impudent vermin!" lol!
Originally posted by psycho gundam
the Egyptians never created the English language so....ummm no 🙄 there was some stuff going on in the world between egypt and current history."Submit! Come, cleave unto me -- and know the joy of eternal darkness."
"Foolish insects! Impudent vermin!" lol!
😐 .........
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Originally posted by willRules
Are you insinuating that speech post ancient Egyptian era is "broken"???? 😕
you do know that apocalypse found the then surgeon nathanial essex in victorian era england, he offered him enhanced powers in exchange for servitude....using old english as a means of communication.
also, the crusader benett du paris had his latent power's awakened by apocalypse (becming exodus) during the medievil era, again apocalypse conversed in that era's form of english.
the "broken" element i was stating is the lack of sofistication of speach patterns of the majority of english speakers as of the later portion of the 1900's. slang and vernacular make nur's speach stand out, just like an english professor at a university makes his/her student's sound simple in comparison.
what else doesn't make sense to you in that?
Originally posted by psycho gundam
the "broken" element i was stating is the lack of sofistication of speach patterns of the majority of english speakers as of the later portion of the 1900's. slang and vernacular make nur's speach stand out, just like an english professor at a university makes his/her student's sound simple in comparison.what else doesn't make sense to you in that?
Totally agree with you on this statement. However this statement only proves that post Egyptian speech isn't "broken" as you've accurately surmised with your closing example....
Originally posted by willRulesfine, but for clarity I never stated that post egyptian period language was broken, i just stated that nur came from a time BEFORE speech degenerated.
Totally agree with you on this statement. However this statement only proves that post Egyptian speech isn't "broken" as you've accurately surmised with your closing example....