"to've" and "t'ave" are speech contractions that reflect language usage. Don't use them in essays any time soon, but in terms of vernacular they're legit. There's nothing wrong with them in terms of transcribing sentences or approximating human speech. That's why other contractions exist, so if "I'm" can substitute for "I am," then why can't "to've" substitute for "to have"?
Originally posted by Scribbleneed to record yourself using these pls
Depends on the context and how far you're willing to go with it. In one of my poems I include these contractions:"can’ help’n’m’se’h"
"****’s ’ungry’n’al’f’r’er’fan"
"y’n’d’a’***’t’feckaway’t’rancid’n’tha"
But those are kind of purposefully absurd and obscure.