Originally posted by Darth Jello
Ok, here's an example/walkthrough. Stockbrokers own a certain surplus of stock. A short seller borrows some of the stock at the price of a transaction fee. He then sells the stock. Let's say the stock is worth $20 a share and the business is an online retailer in the spirit of amazon or overstock. The short seller then uses some of that money to create other accounts and pays people to use those accounts on the site to buy items and then flood the site with bad reviews so business goes down. As business goes down so does the price of the stock. So let's say now the price of the stock is only 5 cents a share and investors want to sell. So the short seller buys back the stock but now that the price has fallen, he doesn't pay the investors back 20 bucks a share, he pays back 5 cents. He then returns his shares to his stock broker, again paying only the transaction fee and keeps his profits.so it's borrow->sell->devalue->buy->return
Okay.
I think I've got it now. The short seller "borrows" stocks for a fee. That short seller then sells those stocks to someone, rather quickly. Then the short seller waits until the stock price drops enough to turn a profit before buying the stocks he or she borrowed.
I didn't understand this, at first, because I couldn't understand why a stockholder would let someone borrow their stocks for a fee. But it makes sense, now. If the stock price goes up and the borrow agreement comes due, then the stockholder actually turns a profit. This is the other part of what I understand as "long" selling or something. So, this means that the original stockholder has the option of turning a profit from the short seller...while also getting a slight security in the form of the fee....meaning, it isn't a complete loss.
But, why would a stockholder allow the stock to be borrowed in the first place...it seems more risky than safe.