Originally posted by 753 I think we're having a comunication problem here.
We don't seem to be talking about the same thing.
I have no problems friend, I'm only conveying Marvel comic facts.
Originally posted by 753 What does it matter if it was an omniversal warp? How do you know that only 616 had mutants lef in it? Even if the spell swept across all timelines, if it did no entirly wipe mutants out in 616, how do you know it did in the others? The warp is said to have wiped out 90% of mutants in 616 and there were more than 198 left in it.
The warp nullified the mutant gene, 90% were affected,
and the effect took place across all Timelines, not just 616.
Originally posted by 753 I've actually remembered just now, that during endangered species story arc, beast sees alternate versions of himself and others trying to reverse the warp, so there were mutants left in other realities as well. The astonishing x-men series also shows some realities where the x gene is not located in the same chromosome as in 616 and they were not affected by the warp. The mutants from the invading reality that forge was fighting were like that.
No one said there were no mutants left, in 616 or otherwise.
Wanda purposely allowed 10% of the gene to stay in existence across the Omniverse.
The feat is being brought up to highlight Wanda's meticulous control of her power,
when someone fallaciously stated Wanda didn't know what she was doing.
That aside:
The monster is the fact that she tore the Omniverse to pieces
while simultaneously remaking 616 in her image, (58163)
she then rebuilt the Omniverse back to normality with a thought,
whle simultaneously also re-arranging 58163 back into 616
while also nullifying the mutant gene from 90% of the race across the Omniverse.