Originally posted by mindbomb
but useing your logic all batman got the insperation from the original batman who did kill after all if he never existed their would be no batman
so doesnt that mean that the argument that burton should of followed some type of continuity fall in the same category of arguments your calling stupid
I never said Burton got the inspiration from the Batman of the golden age. If you read the original comics, Batman was still very different from the Burton films. He was more of a pulp character and he killed in self defense only or when he thought it was necessary (similar to the Shadow; Batman was originally based on him). He also used a gun. There was no Alfred, the batmobile was different, and the Joker was more of a tactical serial killer/terrorist. Vicki Vale always suspected Bruce Wayne of being Batman.
The only thing Burton's Batman and the Golden Age Batman have in common is the fact that they both kill. Besides that, everything else is different. And even their way of killing was completely different too. Whenever people defend Burton's films as being valid adaptations with the whole "Batman killed in his first year of publication", that would be the same as France cancelling all of their sport tournaments except hockey while Canada had no sport tournaments but hockey tournaments for the past 20 years. Does this mean that France was inspired by Canada to cancel all of their tournaments? No. It is just a coincidence they both made this decision (France and Canada both have more than just hockey tournaments. I was only giving an example of what I meant. I know it is a very crappy example but you get the point).
I don't know if you know this but when Batman was first created, he was based heavily off the Shadow. Detective Comics #27 was actually a retelling of the Shadow's first appearance. Batman got rid of his gun when he became his own character (people say he stopped killing due to censorship but it was actually because of both reasons).