Originally posted by ares834
Is there are any reason why we would assume that Odin's TP powers aren't magic based? Because it seems like a pretty logical conclusion.
That, and we're also being asked to assume that his telepathy can overwhelm the Odinforce. So there's two obvious problems with the argument.
When Thor had the full Odinforce, he had telepathy, btw, so it's definitely part of the magic.