Originally posted by NemeBro
You don't seem to understand how this works.I don't need to prove that Sauron's disembodied spirit can only be used through circumstances like the ones mentioned.
What circumstances? There is no reason to believe Dol Guldur is special.
Originally posted by NemeBro
You need to provide evidence he has any power outside of that and can bring it to bear whenever. 👆Just one example. That's all you need. Just one. 🙂
Already have.
👆
Originally posted by Tzeentch
The burden would be on you to prove that he can manifest himself without extenuating circumstances, as the simple fact that he has never done so, even when it would have been to his advantage to do so, is at least enough to cast doubt on the ability.
There are no "extenuating circumstances" though. For there to be so we need to have some reason to believe Dol Guldur is some sort of nexus of power for Sauron. We don't.
Despite it being Sauron the wizard's fortress, in which he had been building up his power for years? The fortress that was explicitly stated to radiate a powerful evil aura? The magical palantir that's explicitly stated to be a magical channeling device?
What makes you think that Sauron could have manifested himself in Bree on a whim and burned Frodo alive with his powers the moment Frodo put the ring on and revealed his location?
What makes you think that Sauron could have manifested himself in the Shire on a whim and burned Bilbo alive with his powers the moment he put the ring on and revealed his location, as opposed to sending his minions across the continent on foot to collect the ring?
Originally posted by Tzeentch
Despite it being Sauron the wizard's fortress, in which he had been building up his power for years?
First, never once in the film (or books) are there magical nexus (at least not that I know of). Secondly, "building his power for years" is nebulous and could mean several things. Like building his armies and regaining his power which, as per the books, is the correct interpretation.
Originally posted by Tzeentch
The magical palantir that's explicitly stated to be a magical channeling device?
*Magical communication device. And that still doesn't change the fact that Sauron used his magic through it.
Originally posted by Tzeentch
What makes you think that Sauron could have manifested himself in Bree on a whim and burned Frodo alive with his powers the moment Frodo put the ring on and revealed his location?
Because Sauron isn't ever shown telelporting and his spirit is chilling in Barad-dur at the time.
Edit: Saruman, "He can not yet take physical form, but his spirit has lost none of its potency."
Checkmate.
Originally posted by Tzeentch
What movie feats does Sauron have that would allow him to really do anything? In his physical form he's as helpless against physical attacks as anyone else since Anduril is never explicitly stated to be magical sans the general Elvishness, in the movies, and in his spirit form he didn't do a whole lot either.At best you're looking at a stalemate as he can't be killed but neither can he actually harm anybody.
Ummm Elvishness means badass with a touch of something different. Call it whatever you want, but it was no average sword.
Originally posted by NemeBro
Ares, post the part where Saruman clarifies that the "strength" and "potency" he was referring to was in the form of "an army great enough to launch an assault upon Middle-Earth." Either that or the big ****ing eye.
Never happens. The potency is the spirit's not an armies. In fact, directly after talking about Sauron's potency he talks about how Sauron sees all. It's only then that he mentions that Sauron is drawing all evil to him and summoning an army.