Originally posted by abhilegend
You are trying to disprove the statement by a negative? "Loki has never traveled to overspace before, so his statement is false even though the concept of overspace is used only under that writer."
Not so circular from where I stand.
I'm assuming that you believe overspace is not outside of Eternity, because otherwise Loki has to be multiversal in order to affect Pym about his expériences over there. You could argue that he could've tampered with Pym's memories, but then he should've tampered with Absorbing Man's too since he used the overspace trick on him. Anyways, is not a terribly simple explanation.