Originally posted by Newjak
But once again he assumes objective morality can only come from a higher power. In which case he is essentially arguing people can not be objective. Do you believe that?
If there is an objective morality, then it is written into reality just as scientific law is and is thus based on a higher power. This higher power could be the Holy Trinity, the Jewish God, Allah, some other God, or hell even chance could constitute a higher power if you believe the universe exists "just because", though chance by its very definition is arbitrary and follows a "what happens happens" type deal so if the higher power behind the universe is chance then it doesn't give enough of a **** for there to be an objective morality.
So either there is a sentient consciousness behind our reality and therefore an objective morality defined by the creator of our reality, or we exist arbitrarily because of the higher power of chance in which case our existences are arbitrary and there is no objective morality.
Originally posted by Newjak
I'm not suggesting that laws equate to pure morality but that doesn't mean we haven't seen humans develop collective morals similar to each other despite distance and religious backgrounds. Things like rape being bad, hurting children, outright murder.
Are you familiar with John Locke's Second Treatise of Government?
Basically, law and government exist to provide security for the people consenting to law and government, so basically it's based upon "we'll protect each other and not hurt each other so we don't get ****ed" which can just as easily be motivated by selfish self-preservation as by an objective morality, and commonness in law can also be attributed to what works best for the people creating the laws.
It's like a business contract, there may be various similarities in business contracts and deals, but that's not necessarily because of an implicit morality in business, its because two people agreed on a mutually beneficial outcome.
Originally posted by Newjak
And he is trying to argue that without God there can be no morals therefore rape would be okay. The implication he is trying to say is therefore there must be a God because rape is bad. It's a circular argument that tries to force an extreme view to solidify his own belief easily.
I'm pretty sure that's not his argument. I'm pretty sure all he's saying is "If God doesn't exist there is no objective morality," not "I can point to an objective morality so therefore God exists," the two are not the same thing.
If he at some point made a statement or implication that morality exists so therefore God does, then feel free to prove me wrong, but he could very likely have a different reason for believing in God and the argument that "if God doesn't exist morality is an illusion" could be completely independent of that reason, so unless there's something actually pointing to that it seems a bit unfair of you to assume he's making that argument.