Originally posted by Deronn_solo
Perhaps, this is the implication? It doesn't mention when Anakin used Oneness however, but it has to allude to his killing of Palpatine, I think.
Yeah, it doesn't mention Anakin entering Oneness at that specific moment. So there isn't concrete proof.
But thanks anyway.
It seems that everybody here agrees that there's no quote nor confirmation of this happening, but I would say that it would be likely. It just makes thematic sense to me.
Some people here are trying to play it up as if it's about the power of Palpatine, and how Anakin would have had to be in a moment of Oneness in order to defeat Palpatine, but that's not necessary. It's possible that Vader could have defeated Palpatine even if he wasn't in the moment of Oneness, but he WAS in a state of oneness when he fulfilled his prophecy as the embodiment of the Will of the Force in the physical world.