Darth Vader's Force power not hindered by his suit?

“Your thoughts betray you,” Plagueis said. “Do you think that Malak’s powers were weakened by Revan’s lightsaber? Bane by being encrusted in orbalisks? Do you think Gravid’s young apprentice was hindered by the prosthesis she was forced to wear after fighting him?”

-Darth Plagueis

Thanks to Azronger's New Darth Tenebrous Respect Thread. I was wondering if this debunks the idea that Vader lost 'some' of his power when he became crippled.

They're not the same at all.

Explain, why not, Supreme Master of Ants?

He lost his potential not his power.

Why people think the EU or Canon are compatible with how Lucas viewed the Force is beyond me.

Originally posted by Zenwolf
He lost his potential not his power.

Obviously by 'power' I mean 'potential'.

If it was implied that Gean wouldn't be hindered by her artificial limbs; why would Vader be?

Originally posted by FreshestSlice
Why people think the EU or Canon are compatible with how Lucas viewed the Force is beyond me.

Eh, lots of PT/OT fanboys have this notion about EU Vader-Anakin.

Sidious does infer that he THINKS Vaders power loss is all in his head but nothing concrete comes of that.

GL himself says that Anakin lost his potential when he lost most of his natural body so thats pretty much that

I've always believed that Vader's decrease in power was entirely due to psychological reasons, Sidious believed similar as well. That if Vader could overcome his self pitty, depression, and lack of interest in life he would have his full power.

Or maybe Jinn Force-tampered with that midi-chlorian scanner. And he was all this time Anakin's father.

Originally posted by Board Walker
I've always believed that Vader's decrease in power was entirely due to psychological reasons, Sidious believed similar as well. That if Vader could overcome his self pitty, depression, and lack of interest in life he would have his full power.

I never understood why couldn't he heal himself?

Originally posted by Freedon Nadd
I never understood why couldn't he heal himself?

Post of betraying the Jedi Order, killing his wife, and being maimed by kenobi, Anakin was consumed by self loathing and apathy.

In many ways Anakin truly believed his state as Vader was a just punishment for what he had done to his wife, and likely subconsciously did not want to disrupt the status quo of his unofficial self punishment.

At several points in the EU Anakin did in fact use the force to heal his lungs, when this started to progress he was overcome with joy which then in turned caused him to stop feeling self loathing/self pitty. Consequently this caused him to stop healing his lung with the force, and to return to his previous state of self loathing/pitty due to his maimed state of existence (which he was keeping himself in).

In fact Vader could have also had an entirely new Anakin Skywalker body if he wanted (made from his own DNA). In one of the EU stories Vader comes upon a perfect cloning machine, and a perfect clone of his unmaimed body is made. He subsequently kills both

Wasn't it stated in ROTS novel that he doesn't have lungs anymore?

Originally posted by relentless1

GL himself says that Anakin lost his potential when he lost most of his natural body so thats pretty much that

Well Disney doesnt need to follow GL to the letter. But regardless its pretty obvious he lost potential, otherwise he wouldnt still be taking orders from Palpatine 20-25 years later.

But why is that, though? I don't get it. There is no logic/al reason behind it. Does he have less Force cells or what? Would that mean a giant Force sensitive would be stronger than average-sized Force-users because more Force cells reside in his or her body?

Originally posted by Freedon Nadd
But why is that, though? I don't get it. There is no logic/al reason behind it. Does he have less Force cells or what? Would that mean a giant Force sensitive would be stronger than average-sized Force-users because more Force cells reside in his or her body?

No but having a damaged body clearly seems to effect potential.

Whilst its also clear they dont have to decline in actualised power either, going by both Vader and Mauls example.

Not saying it makes perfect sense, but it is what it is.

Originally posted by Darth Thor
No but having a damaged body clearly seems to effect potential.

Whilst its also clear they dont have to decline in actualised power either, going by both Vader and Mauls example.

Not saying it makes perfect sense, but it is what it is.

What do you mean by "actualized power"? I thought each Force-user has a certain level of Force strength where they learn to manifest it via learning various Force abilities?

Originally posted by Freedon Nadd
What do you mean by "actualized power"? I thought each Force-user has a certain level of Force strength where they learn to manifest it via learning various Force abilities?

I mean TCW Maul and Rebels Maul were still pretty much as powerful as TPM Maul. He may have even improved a little.

Same with OT Vader compared with Late TCW/ROTS Anakin.

But (aside from their recovery period) they were both improving at an incredibly slow rate after becoming physically challenged.

Originally posted by Freedon Nadd
What do you mean by "actualized power"? I thought each Force-user has a certain level of Force strength where they learn to manifest it via learning various Force abilities?

Imagine Anakin as a large glass of water that's only half full. When he gets injured, the glass becomes smaller but the amount of water inside stays the same more or less. So he might still have the same amount of actualized power, but he lost the potential of what he could have been.