Was OJ Innocent of Killing His Wife and Ron Goldman?
[Inspired by the assertions that lack of filed hate-crime charges against Arbery's killers was proof that there was no racial motivation; as well as other topics in which this logical discord occurs]
Just curious if certain posters' logic of "aquittal=factual innocence" applies to everyone, or if it only applies to the privileged.
the reasoning goes as such: Innocence is presumed if the law cannot prove guilt beyond a reasonable doubt, therefore the presence of reasonable doubt equates to complete and factual innocence & exoneration, not just in the eyes of the law, but as an indesputable reality.
According to this logic, since OJ was aquitted, he factually did not kill Nicole Brown and Ron Goldman, and there is a murderer still on the loose who got away with these murders and framed poor OJ. Do you agree that OJ was done wrong and deserves recompense for the miscarriage of justice committed upon him?
I look forward to reading the opinions of the "reasonable doubt=exoneration" folks, who will no doubt address the question with much intellectual honesty and loads of maturity, with not even a hint of cowardice/deflection/personal attacks/talking about their feelings/attributing feelings to others, etc
and heeeere weeeee GO!