Kirak Infila is not >Kenobi ?

From Darth Vader: Dark Lord of the Sith 1:
“When Anakin Skywalker fell, both to the pull of the dark side and to the blade of Obi-Wan Kenobi, he rose back up, more machine than man. Having lost everything that was once dear to him, the former chosen one must take his first steps into a darker world…as Darth Vader, Dark Lord of the Sith!”

I saw people using the quote above to say that Kirak Infila isn’t >Kenobi (Kirak was implied to having been the strongest Hedi Vader faced). Basically, Anakin fully became Vader only after the passage quoted above, so that quote putting Kirak>all previous Jedi doesn’t apply to Kenobi. Do you agree with this?

People are idiots. Anakin becomes Vader as soon as he is dubbed so by Palaptine not merely when he gets the suit.

With that said, I wouldn't say Kirak is more powerful than Kenobi simply because of that single quote. And, yes, supplementary material such as that often, incorrectly, don't consider Anakin to become Vader until he puts on the suit.

People always try to lowball.

Anakin officially became Vader after Palpatine killed Mace.

But if they want to pretend like he only became Vader after the events on Mustafar, then he never had fought ANY Jedi before Kirak, because Kirak was the first Jedi he fought after getting put in the suit. So it wouldn't make any sense at all for the text to say that Kirak was more powerful than any Jedi Vader had ever fought, if he had never fought any other Jedi before that.

Some of the people out there like to think they know it all, and they're willing to ignore obvious facts like that to try and prove their "point". Don't listen to them.

I agree with ares and Sheev.

Kirak was the ONLY Jedi that suited/post-Mustafar Vader had faced up to that point -- he literally got off the operating table, and immediately went on a mission to find Kirak.

So it wouldn't make sense for Soule to specifically state that Kirak was "a Jedi more powerful than ANY Vader has faced BEFORE", if he wasn't also factoring in the Jedi that Vader had previously fought after turning to the dark side(ie. Kenobi, Cin Drallig, etc.)

Because again: if the quote is only in reference to post-RotS Vader, then he hadn't faced any other Jedi "before" Kirak.

I know people like to dig for 'loopholes' with this kind of thing, but that particular point is just nonsense, imo. The contextual intent of the quote is pretty clear.

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