Originally posted by Raptor22
Do people really want voter id laws to be like gun laws?Where in order to buy a gun from a federally licensed seller u need id, so in order to vote at a licensed poll u would need one.
But since there is no federal law (only differing state laws) requiring id for purchases between same state private sellers/buyers ie gun shows, sales to friends, relatives, associates etc... Would people be ok with the government letting private citizens set up private voting booths where no id and no other regulations or requirements are necessary and letting the states individually decide on whether or not to allow it?
If private citizens want to hold an election for a private position, they can set whatever rules they want.
Originally posted by Raptor22
where did u get private sale=private election? Its more like Private sale = private voting
Private gun sales are sales between two private citizens with no government involvement. therefore the equivalent would be voting between private citizens with no government involvement.
I don't think that's true, people from across the political spectrum understand (or don't understand) logic, there's just a lot of different values and people have different experience and information that they rate more or less important. I'm not just saying that cause I am a leftist and believe myself to understand logic though, I swear.
Originally posted by Silent Master
No, it's not. what is being proposed is needing an ID to vote. not needing a specific ID that can only be used to vote.
That is not true. In half of states with voter ID laws, legitimate forms of photo ID that those state governments will accept for identity verification purposes in all other instances cannot be used to vote. That defacto requires otherwise eligible voters to get a specific voter ID.
Originally posted by Silent Master
Private gun sales are sales between two private citizens with no government involvement. therefore the equivalent would be voting between private citizens with no government involvement.
No, it would not. In Raptor22's scenario, the person is exercising a constitutional right to vote in a public election, but the transaction of casting the ballot has been privatized—just like a private gun sale.
Originally posted by Adam_PoE
No, it would not. In Raptor22's scenario, the person is exercising a constitutional right to vote in a public election, but the transaction of casting the ballot has been privatized—just like a private gun sale.
Not a public election, a government election. there is no government involvement in a private gun sale between two citizens