God, Wife & Pantheon
Is the Judeo/Christian God really an ancient Canaanite Chief God of the Canaanite Pantheon?
Did the Hebrews simply adopt the Canaanite religion and make it their own?
Does this mean that God also has a wife and is part of a pantheon and not a monotheistic deity, would this explain biblical references when God or others use the term "Us" and "Gods?"
Could Asherah have been God's wife and was God originally part of a polytheistic religion?
If it could be proven, it would totally discredit the old testament as a history resource.
Another possible theory:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yahweh_(Canaanite_deity)
I have a hard time believing that the bible is not a batch work of several other religions prior to it's creation. The Samurian flood story is too similar to be ignored as the source for the Hebrew flood story. I think that the Hebrews not only took the Canaanite name for God, El. But, also incorporated aspects of El into their reinterpretation of God.
Originally posted by Nietzschean
I have a hard time believing that the bible is not a batch work of several other religions prior to it's creation. The Samurian flood story is too similar to be ignored as the source for the Hebrew flood story. I think that the Hebrews not only took the Canaanite name for God, El. But, also incorporated aspects of El into their reinterpretation of God.
not just that. The Jesus story has been done before. The Egyptians have a similar story of the God creating a son on Earth from a human woman. So do the Hindus. Hell, even the Greeks had the Hercules story.
Originally posted by socool8520
not just that. The Jesus story has been done before. The Egyptians have a similar story of the God creating a son on Earth from a human woman. So do the Hindus. Hell, even the Greeks had the Hercules story.
Hercules is problematic, actually, so is pretty much everything from Europe when it comes to making comparisons with Christianity. There was a long Christian influence there, which sometimes involved adjusting myths to fit Christianity better, and the pre-Christian traditions didn't leave many records.
We seriously might as well discuss whether a whole library is a single book or a batch of works.
Bible ultimately comes from the Greek βιβλία (biblia), which originally meant “little books.” Over time the Greek word lost its diminutive sense and biblia came to mean simply “books.” Latin borrowed the Greek word, but quite late; it appears in Latin texts from Britain by the seventh century C.E. The more common word in Latin to refer to the Christian scriptures was bibliotheca, another originally Greek word and which literally means “library,” showing that the Bible was viewed as a collection of books, and not as a single text.http://www.wordorigins.org/index.php/bible/
Originally posted by Symmetric Chaos
Hercules is problematic, actually, so is pretty much everything from Europe when it comes to making comparisons with Christianity. There was a long Christian influence there, which sometimes involved adjusting myths to fit Christianity better, and the pre-Christian traditions didn't leave many records.
Originally posted by ADarksideJediyeh, that is not what evidence and ancient relics and scriptures says.
No he did not have a wife.
Originally posted by ADarksideJedi
Well not trying to offend anyone but everyone knows that. And to think that is just plain dumb. 🙄
How so. Please explain. It seems plain dumb that Joseph believed Mary was impregnated by a God then the more likely possibility of another man, however millions of people see it as feasible.
Originally posted by ADarksideJediactually the original text states that Mary was referred as a young woman or young girl which was later reinterpreted into virgin.
It is something that did happen. Mary did not sleep with any man and an angel went to him to tell him so. Now if the Angel did not then I can see your point but he did so theres your point.
the original bible never stated she was a virgin it was simply a stretch to assume it with the initial description of who Mary was.