Originally posted by Regret
Your interpretations are your "personal agenda." You present your interpretation and make the claim that other interpretations are misinterpretations. You are the one that in many of our eyes "grossly misinterprets." Why do you do this? Because you believe that you know the proper manner of interpretation. From my, and other's, perspective you do not know how to interpret scripture correctly.
The only *personal agenda* I have is to spread the truth and love of God's word. The truth is always loving - unfortunately many don't love the truth. Whether I receive praise or condemnation from others while spreading this truth is of little value to me.
Still - I do have much concern and great animosity towards false doctrines, and those Christians who purposefully profess them, particularly when presented in a fashion capable of leading those not versed in the scriptures astray.
Feceman's *insightful* arguments of "homosexual attraction" not being sinful, and of God not condemning Sodom and Gomorrha because of such perverse behaviour - falls under the category of being a false doctrine. I will continue to call you and others out when you've espoused such *insightful* drivel - regardless of whether or not I receive excessive adulation/praise for any expression of truth, and with the hope that you and others, do not resign yourselves to following such foolish opinions.
Originally posted by Regret
Part of the reason is that, in our opinion, you lack the Spirit. The other reason is that you are using an English version of the Bible, it is a translation, and by virtue of linguistics, all translations are intrepretations based in "using complicated linguistics and etymologies to translate a simple word or passage(within the scriptures)" the very English text you read was gained through this process, by individuals that followed one of the Christian denominations that you disagree with. The only versions that come close to avoiding translation are the Hebrew Old Testament and the Greek New Testament. One must examine the original language because man has translated it, and man makes mistakes, both intentionally and unintentionally,to do otherwise is leaning on the understanding of men, not on the spirit.Pride, as a sin, is a lack of humility.
I have no problem humbling myself when presented with truth, however, I will save this humility for a time when I have been presented with such.
The bible is never referenced as being the *inspired word of man* - but instead it is always referred to being the *inspired word of God*
When one lacks or questions their faith in the latter statement - they have begun to declare fallibility in God's word, and are in essence calling God a liar. Men do make mistakes - however, the beauty of having true faith in God's word(the bible) - comes from one having enough faith in God, and his ability to account for any mistakes made by man. Legalism and exstensive studying of minor words and phraseologies, does not garner such faith, but instead - sets a precendence for endless-convoluted-embellished interpretations of scripture, and prideful arguments which cause confusion - over glaringly obvious meanings within it.
Again - the debate style yourself and Feceman are using is the same type of debate style used by the Pharisees, and it is very sadenning to see two intelligent individuals such as yourselves engaging in it.
Originally posted by Regret
Now, you did exactly what I predicted you would do. So, I will do exactly what I stated I would. You do not have the Spirit, thus everything that I disagree with that you have stated is in error due to the "indwelling of the Holy Spirit" that I enjoy and you do not.
You are very capable of possessing the Holy Spirit, as is everyone who believes in Christ - it is not either of our places to insinuate who does and does not have the capability of receiving such a spirit within them. However, the false argument you seem so determined to adhere to, as well as the debate style you have presented it in, is a major indication that you are not being moved by such a spirit - while presenting this argument. Again - I do not seek to condemn you by saying this, rather I pray that you at some point - will acknowledge the truth in my words, so that the spirit will move you to inform others of the truth that's been presented.
Originally posted by Regret
Once again you "add" to the scripture in the same manner you accuse others of. Lot and the acts I mentioned are not condemned in the Bible, you claim he erred, there is nothing in the text of the Bible suggesting this. Lot was a good man, he, and his family, is excepted from the scrutiny of the Angels due to his relation to Abraham when the Angels go to search for one righteous person. Your disagreement with my assertions merely demonstrate that you do not agree, and given that I believe I have the Spirit, it is evidence to me that you do not. Now like I stated earlier arguments to who does or does not have the Spirit is a pointless venture, so I will not pursue it further, as you have already stated that I do not, and I have reciprocated with the same claim. If you wish to pursue such, I will ignore that portion of your posts.
I never stated that Lot wasn't a good man. In fact - if you read my statement above *once again* you will see that I professed Lot to be "righteous." For you to insinuate otherwise after reading my prior response - is extremely illogical - and it appears that you have presented it in a willfully deceiving fashion. However - in order to give you the benefit of the doubt, and to not appear as *prideful* with this assertion - let me repeat what was initially stated again, in case I have erred regarding the motive of your interpretation.
Lot's righteousnous was based on his faith in God - rather than any works he had performed. This righteousnous was *once again* demonstrated by his faith in God when leaving Sodom and Gomorrha.
This entire argument regarding Lot's righteousnous was in response to the following Legalistic/Pharisaical argument you had presented - regarding him willing giving his daughters over to the depraved men of Sodom.
Originally posted by Regret
So, if my neighbor gives me his daughters for sex, this is sanctioned by the Bible?
As stated in my prior post - this was indeed a sinful action on Lot's part, and it took place due to lot being overtaken by a spirit of fear.
This is not simply not base on my own willfull *interpretation* of the scripture, this is simply called using my God given *common sense* - something that he(God) instills within all those who truly love him.
Sodom was a wicked city, and it's pride over commiting such wickedness, was the reason as to why it was destroyed. Still this does not excuse any sinful actions - commited by its people because of this pride. When one states otherwise - they are grossly misrepresenting the scriptures. I have no further reason nor motivation to argue this obvious truth behind my arguments. I hope that you do indeed meditate and accept the truth that's been presented - and at some point use it for the benefit of others. Good day to you. And God bless.