Originally posted by Utrigita
that wasn't the point I merely gave the person that invented the term Omniverse a name.And since there is no copyright on the term, the companies is free to define the term in what way they like within there comic books.
and hence my original argument of marvel DEFINING the term differently than DC and other, and hence the argument {marvel}omniverse> {dc}multiverse, being wrong as the two are not compareable. this was brushed aside by astner. if then the above argument really IS to hold, then marvel SHOULD define the term as every1 else, and THAT is where marvel shies out due to copyright concerns as they can not claim to have authority over other publisher's characters and worlds because the OTHER publishers define omniverse as containing all publishers and all media. so again, when larvel says omniverse, they are referring to their singular multiverse and sumtimes to their megaverse{and this can be seen with the amount of authority and power the character is displayed}.