Harry Potter vs. Anakin Skywalker

Started by Impediment7 pages

Yes, we can only use movie canon here. If Anakin Skywalker, not Darth Vader, did not use a light saber throw in episodes II & III, then we cannot use this scenario.

And please don't argue semantics with me that "Vader is Anakin" and whatnot.

Vader is NOT Anakin, as we all know.

Originally posted by Rogue Jedi
I agree with you, but unfortunately we can only go with what is seen onscreen.

He did do it on-screen, in RotS with the medical droids.

Originally posted by Rogue Jedi
Vader is NOT Anakin, as we all know.

Biologically, yes. Mentally, no, IMO.

Originally posted by Blax_Hydralisk
He did do it on-screen, in RotS with the medical droids.

I really don't remember, to be honest. It's been a while since I've watched it. I really disliked the Prequel Trilogy.

I think we might be talking two different things.

I think RJ is referring to the saber throw, while I am, as of the last few posts of mine, referring to the force crush Anakin does in Rots. He's in his suit for the first time, a couple hours after the Mustafar battle, and he learns that Padme' died and he gets pissed and shit all around the room starts to explode.

Originally posted by Blax_Hydralisk
I think we might be talking two different things.

I think RJ is referring to the saber throw, while I am, as of the last few posts of mine, referring to the force crush Anakin does in Rots. He's in his suit for the first time, a couple hours after the Mustafar battle, and he learns that Padme' died and he gets pissed and shit all around the room starts to explode.

Ah, well, then that explains it. 🙂

Originally posted by Blax_Hydralisk
I think we might be talking two different things.

I think RJ is referring to the saber throw, while I am, as of the last few posts of mine, referring to the force crush Anakin does in Rots. He's in his suit for the first time, a couple hours after the Mustafar battle, and he learns that Padme' died and he gets pissed and shit all around the room starts to explode.

At that point he is Vader, not Anakin.

Could one argue that, while wearing his new bionic suit, that it is still Anakin Skywalker who cries out in anguish and uses the force smash?

I mean, he did just wake up after being re-assembled and such.

Darth Vader, the persona, might have taken time to establish while the last remnants of Anakin diminished.

Could this be argued?

He was Vader the moment he accepts Sidious's tutelage, back when he chopped off Maces arm.

......................I have to agree with you on that. I really do.

Like I said: I haven't watched the PT in years, since I disliked it so much.

ugh, anakin = good, vader = bad put rather simply. if I wanted evi lI wouldve said vader once again. Anakin can use all the skills he had when he was good

So all of the skills he displayed up to the point where he relieved Mace of his arm then.

Originally posted by Rogue Jedi
So all of the skills he displayed up to the point where he relieved Mace of his arm then.
i would think all of the skills until he was dubbed darth vader

Originally posted by Rogue Jedi
So all of the skills he displayed up to the point where he relieved Mace of his arm then.

I would say yes. We need to get the opinions of others, though, just to be unanimous.

Opinions why? Its a fact, man. He ceased being Anakin Skywalker and became Darth Vader, to quote Obi Wan.

The quote also ended with "from a certain point of view". PoV's can't be used in debates.

Irregardless, it'd be much easier to just say lightside Anakin or Dark Side Anakin.

Wait, wait, wait.

The whole "Light side Anny"/"Dark Side Anny" is even more confusing.

When he cut Maces arm away, he went over fully to the dark side, he was no longer Jedi, he was Sith. The Jedi in him died, as did Anakin.

Would you argue that this is, in fact, indisputable, John? I, as a matter of fact agree.