Originally posted by Symmetric Chaos
What is the evidence for lack of private property? Or rather what is the evidence for preponderance of public property?
Private property is a relationship among people in which the owner of a thing can exclude others from using or possesing said thing - i am referring specifically to natural resources or means of production here.
Because hunter-gatherer societies and many agricultural and or pastoral societies did not practice this exclusive access, they cannot be said to have private property. Everybody uses the resources arround them without imposing restrictions on the beahavior of others to do so. The products of the hunt and gathering - a group effort - were also distributed equally. Little to no surplus lead to little to no acumulation and the products of group enedeavors were largelly distributed among all members of the group equally. Intelectual property was simply inconceiveble.
Common areas for farming were also frequent in socieites with varying levels of hierearchy from command economies such as ancient egypt (that had a class devide and was not egalitarian) to kibutz like egalitarian communes.
If you want some academic sources on hunter gathere economy, I can recomend:
Limited Wants, Unlimited Means: A reader on Hunter-Gatherer Economics and the Environment. John Gowdy
Egalitarianism and Machiavellian Intelligence in Human Evolution Mellars & Gibson.
Subsistence, Ecology and Food production. A lecture by Thomas M. Kiefer
Woman the Gatherer and Man the Hunter are also two books on the subject.
The bibliography on the subject extends far further, but I'm not a specialist on it. If you're interested, just research origins of private property. There's also a lot of political and philosphical literature dealing with it of course.