Don Schneider
Junior Member
Originally posted by Shakyamunison
Let me help you with this one with a thought: Imagine a multiverse with only two universes. One of them, we will call "A" is just like this one and it started 14 billion years ago. The second one, we will call "B", is also just like this one but the arrow of time is moving in the opposite direction. Universe "B" has it's big bang right now, and moves backward in time. That mean when universe "A" was first starting, universe "B" was 14 billion years old. Under this thought, there is no beginning although each universe "A" & "B" both have a beginning.
In your hypothetical, you position a dynamic process by invoking time as in “is happening right now,” or it “happened 14 billion years ago.” I get the impression from reading Dr, Deutsch’s book that he is positioning a stagnant multiverse that has always existed and “is all that exists.” This is in accordance with the concept of the block universe, except as a vast elaboration of it by positioning myriad spacetimes instead of just one.
Within the block universe there is no moment of time privileged to solely call itself the present or “now.” Every moment exists eternally and contemporaneously with every other; thus every moment is “now.” Napoleon is right now still encountering his downfall at Waterloo. All the MWI does is indicate that right now, in another part of the multiverse, Nappy is also emerging victorious on the same blood soaked fields, soaked with more Allied blood than French this time.
Yet, when you invoke the arrow of time I most certainly tend to agree that your hypothetical multiverse did emerge via a sequential process, i.e., via causes and effects in accordance with the laws of physics; thus, the arrow of time. However, that sequential process, that dynamic force, cannot have manifested itself within a static universe or multiverse. Therein lies the problem and the main thrust of my paper.
When we contemplate a Rembrandt masterpiece today, we note that it is static. It has been, as we know, for several centuries. Yet, there is undeniable order within its composition that could only have been the result of some dynamic force. In this instance, we don’t need to speculate about the nature of that force. It was the artist.
In regard to your subsequent note indicating that Einstein formulated his theory in the early Twentieth Century, are you also indicating that Newton’s Law of Gravity is all the more suspect because he formulated it well over three centuries ago? Every empirical test of Einstein’s theory bears it out. What his theory predicts has always been the observed result when tested, such as, for example, clocks running slower the higher the speed they are traveling. Quantum physics, for example, supplements his theory but doesn't displace it or invalidate it.