Originally posted by King Kandy
Why not? You say "if every action was moral, then morality would have no meaning". OK. So? Why did god have to care about dividing up actions in that manner? No need for a dichotomy when there could only be one (hey, isn't that basically occam's razor thinking, again)?
As I said before. It needs to be a logically working world. God can do anything within the realm of logic. A world where an action is "good" needs to logically have the opposite of that be "bad". And the world needs to have "good" and "bad" to , again, logically function. If you kill someone, at the very least you have something "bad" happening to that person. You cannot make a logically functional world without "good" and "bad" in some form or another.
Originally posted by King Kandy
But you are basically trying to discuss these systems by their 1-sentence descriptions. I think before you apply such simplistic divisions you should actually read about some polytheistic religions.
The thread isn't about any specific polytheistic religion, so which one am I suppose to be responding to?
Like I said, if there was a specific polytheistic religion that was being defended here, it would have it's own reasons and evidence behind it. There wasn't. It was simply: "One god or multiple?"
Originally posted by King Kandy
OK. So let's compare Judaic god to christian trinity. They share a whole testament so we are getting as much common ground as possible. What is it you feel makes the three-in-one seem more likely to you of these options, when it already has the whole occams razor strike against it?
There is no Occam's Razor strike against it because it isn't on completely equal footing with the Judaic god. There is a completely new Testament, historical evidence, and a whole debate that can take place between the two religions. Occam's Razor does not apply to this example. It also would not apply to any specific polytheistic religion vs a specific monotheistic religion, granted they both have some kind of support behind them.
Originally posted by Quark_666
It uses our need for an explanation as the only criteria to judge its existence. It virtually surrenders to atheistic theories about the origins of theism.
No it doesn't. We have never, at any point, been judging the possible existence of God. We have been, for the sake of argument, assuming that a god or gods exists and then asking the question of whether that being is one or many.