Originally posted by Oliver North
lol, so I'm going to post this to support my assertions about the intellectual honesty of the authors. A "Discussion" section in a scientific article is usually the last or second to last section where the thrust of the argument is made. It is where someone would make the strongest and most direct points about the study and their results.This is the entire discussion section from the article in question, notice how much of it is composed of the author's qualifying the results and aknowledging the limitations of their results. SCIENCE!
Yup, the authors did a pretty good job of acknowledging the weakness of their work.
[The stuff I typed below was posted to another location so it may seem off like my discussion of linear regression...but it is a copy paste of my own words]
Even the researchers agree with me:"Numerous factors may affect both soda consumption and problem behavior in children. Poor dietary choices, such as high soda consumption, in young children may be associated with other parenting practices, such as excessive television (TV) viewing and high consumption of other sweets. Furthermore, parenting practices may be associated with social factors known to be associated with child behavior. The relationship between a stressful home environment and child behavior is well known; for example, children who are victims of violent acts or who witness violence have been found to have more externalizing and internalizing behavior problems and more aggression problems, and to show signs of posttraumatic stress disorder."
But it seems they throw this logic out the window:
"In the present study, we investigated the effect of soda consumption on behavior, specifically aggression, attention, and withdrawal behaviors, in a sample of almost 3000 5-year-old children from urban areas across the US. Considering that other dietary factors may be associated with both soda consumption and behavior, we adjusted our analyses for other dietary components as well as for social risk factors that may be associated with parenting practices as well as child behavior."
So did they intend for this to be a bridge study where someone was supposed to fill in the gap to explain why children who drink more 'soda' are "badder"? Hmm?
But the social risk factors were not very well controlled:
"To characterize the home environment, which may be correlated with parenting practices and child behavior, we included 3 social risk factors obtained from the 60-month assessment in our analysis: probable maternal depression, intimate partner violence (IPV), and paternal incarceration."
We should have seen a risk-factor that controlled for health, not necessarily for the limited scope they had on diet. BMI of 95%? They probably meant percentile, not percent? That may not necessarily be indicative of 4 or more sodas...but it most likely is.
And, by the way, they conducted the research like I said they did:
"We used bivariate ANOVA to examine the associations between the aggression, withdrawal, and attention subscales of the CBCL and each level of soda consumption. We then used linear regression models to estimate the association between soda consumption and these child behavior subscales."
Translation: more soda was used to show a correlation between what they determined as "bad behavior."
Then they used these scales to analyze the data. There was significant variation in the data after they modeled it with their controls. This can be a sign that a correlation, if drawn, may be weak (so we don't even need to produce a linear regression coefficient to show this relationship).
But, in the text you quotted, it seems like they say all that stuff about how useless their study is and then they support their conclusion. That doesn't make sense, to me.
"These limitations notwithstanding... we found strong and consistent relationships between soda consumption and a range of problem behaviors..."
Doesn't that seem odd to state?
Originally posted by Oliver North
as with many previous instances, this might be more of a thread about how the media is ill-equipped to report on science, or just does a bad, self serving job.
The news-writer acknowledged the weakness and seemed to have a more in-depth discussion about caffeine than the researchers, actually. In fact, the writer of that article seemed more up front about the weaknesses than the researchers. That last bit of the conclusion statement is what is rustling my jimmies.
Edit - And I would like to note that some researchers use scales to obfuscate their work and distort their results. I am not saying that is what they did but they did use scales to put all of those factors into one lump. How did they weight them? Were they weighted equally? If so, why? If not, why? (I believe they mentioned that the scales were established by another organization and they were well understood making my point pretty much moot).