Doctor Strange vs Scarlet Witch

Started by abhilegend2 pages
abhilegend Prince of All Saiyans

Originally posted by operator616
Right, Avengers 503. It was the eye which neutralized Wanda (HoM power levels, even though she was just beginning to manifest them in disassembled). On the other hand, Strange has outright stated in the past that the mere presence of the artifacts makes him much more powerful, so it is directly associated with his power level. In that case, it qualifies for "peak" strange, i guess. I actually completely forgot about their confronation even though i was just debating it in the other thread lol.

Yeah it happens. Strange has ridiculous high showings and low showings.

operator616 Senior Member

His power fluctuation is mostly due to his constant upgrades and depowerments. In the 60s he receieved two upgrades (one was just a statement the other one being the ancient one's power, and his villains would even comment on his increased power level). Then he received another one in the 70s when he become SS, after that he was depowered to being a master of mystic. Then again in the 80s he was upgarded when his artifacts returned.

Raw-power wise, he's still nowhere near HoM Wanda though. Classic or otherwise.

abhilegend Prince of All Saiyans

Yep

Galan007 |Quantum Observer|

Originally posted by Mr Master
That reads like so much more than it is.

Wanda wasn't attacking Strange in the "no more mutants" phrase, only mutants. (sorta)

This isn't the first thread you've said this in.

No, that reads like exactly what it is. Wanda's 'no more Mutants' spell was Omniversal -- not only did it remake the Omniverse, but it removed the X-gene from the majority of its populace. Strange shielded himself(and others) from that spell's effects. If the spell wasn't meant to target/effect him, he wouldn't have looked like he just got drug under a bus in the following issue:
http://i.imgur.com/w5C9CY2.jpg

Originally posted by Mr Master
When Wanda remade 616 into 58163, Strange got twisted with everything/one else.
Do we know if he was shielding himself in that instance as well?

Originally posted by Mr Master
I know you can't be referring to me
Did I mention your name?

abhilegend Prince of All Saiyans

Wanda didn't remade the omniverse......

She corrected Earth 616 and the reality cancer which affected the omniverse was cured.

Heck, in UXM 462 her reality warp is stated to be global in range.

Mr Master Junior Member

facepalm ...

Originally posted by Galan007

This isn't the first thread you've said this in.


O.k. It's what I know, so I'll say it again when need be.
Originally posted by Galan007

No, that reads like exactly what it is. Wanda's 'no more Mutants' spell was Omniversal -- not only did it remake the Omniverse, but it removed the X-gene from the majority of its populace.


Yes, I said that. She fixed the Omniverse which was "torn to pieces."
This is why her "no more mutants" spell was "omniversal."
The other "omniversal" part of it, is removing the x-gene. (but that's individuals)

Even so, in order to reach all those individuals across the omniverse,
she well,
had to transcend her spell across the omniverse.

Originally posted by Galan007

Strange shielded himself(and others) from that spell's effects. If the spell wasn't meant to target/effect him, he wouldn't have looked like he just got drug under a bus in the following issue:


Well, it wasn't meant to affect him negatively, cause from my understanding, Strange is not a mutant.

All his spell did was allow him to retain memories of what happened.

Nice. But, relevant in a battle? nah.

Actually, he phuked himself up by performing that minute feat, even though Emma helped.

Originally posted by Galan007

Do we know if he was shielding himself in that instance as well?


It wouldn't matter.
Originally posted by Galan007

Did I mention your name?


Well, I was like the only one highlighting HOM Wanda's feats and status in this thread.