Originally posted by The_Tempest
I said your analogy is clumsily worded, which it is.
On what grounds?
You're assuming the text is being equally as imprecise in its wording.
It is. It says that he used the dark side to bury it. In English usage it wouldn't be unusual for this to refer to his manipulation of any potential obstacles to its burying; see my driving across the border analogy.
In the absence of all other evidence, we would indeed assume telekinesis as the most straightforward interpretation, but in conjunction with the other sources, the simpler explanation is actually the one I'm peddling, .i.e. that he was just using telepathy.
The straightforward interpretation assumes the text says what it explicitly says, that the Emperor used the dark side to bury the ship. Your argument is, "well, what the text really means is that he used the dark side during the burial or to facilitate the burial or to conceal the burial."
See above; that's what two other sources say.
But that's not what the text of this particular source says. The text of this particular source says the ship was buried as a demonstration of his powers. There is no conflict and the only argument that requires mental gymnastics is yours; I'm merely generously answering questions when asked.
Your interpretation requires us to just assume that these two sets of sources just decided to omit information for the heck of it, and it just happens to be that it looks as if the source in the OP were just a more vaguely worded version of the other two. It's not a matter of whether there's a contradiction, it's a matter of whether it's a plausible explanation.
Of course, we both know that wasn't the authorial intent. What are the chances that the author independently thought up of Palpatine using the dark side to bury a star destroyer? No, they obviously transcribed from the original source, which referenced Palpatine's command of the dark side being enough to TP Coruscant, took the "dark side" phrase, and then didn't notice how vaguely worded it was. Any conclusion that he was using telekinesis is purely a product of this semantics mishap.
To that end, regarding the ship's functionality, the source never stated or implied that Palpatine needed to use the dark side to bury the ship... merely that he did so as a demonstration of his powers. I imagine a malignant narcissist might indulge in some superfluous grandiosity from time to time.
Demonstrate to who? Nobody remembers it happening...