UCanShootMyNova
Senior Member
Originally posted by The Ellimist
Yeah, it mentions it for a specific attack. It doesn't mean he's drawing on the dark side constantly, and if he is, it's only half of his reserves.Kas'im and Bane were both dark siders, so the nexus would roughly cancel.
How's it ambiguous?
1. It shows that Plagueis and Sidious were a greater threat to the Force than Vitiate was.
2. It's something Vitiate certainly would've benefited from if he were capable of doing it.
3. It was done on their raw power, since they were just meditating and wrestling with it.
4. It's reasonable to conclude that doing this with the Force itself would require lots of power.
In the absence of all other evidence it would be reasonable to suggest that Yoda was below Plagueis for that reason. But he has stalemated Sidious, so we can't just ignore that.
By your logic, we should conclude that pre-Nathema Vitiate > novel Vitiate because the former's Nathema feat is more impressive than anything he does in the novel.
I'm referring to the scene prior to the fight during his mediation.
But if it amps individuals to the same degree Bane should have received more of a benefit... That's why I think the effect is additive rather then multiplicative.
1. That doesn't place Plagueis above Vitiate. It places Plagueis and Sidious at the time above him.
2. Fair enough. Read above.
3. Fair enough Refer to 1.
4. Fair enough refer to the last section on my last response. TLDR: It's unmeasurable and doesn't make sense given the demonstrated limits of the individuals in question.
Right so we know that the feat they accomplished is not indicative of power at the level implied and thus I am at a loss on how we should measure it.
Not at all. That feat is measurable. Plagueis's is not.