Originally posted by Beniboybling
The One's were described as "more powerful with the Force than any Jedi have seen before" and capable of wielding the Force in ways beyond mortal ability upon introduction, so that's a yes to a retcon regarding them.
Oh. Really? Who described them as such, if I may ask?
But, well. So Kun is just a "darker power" than the Star Forge, the World Razer, Soa, Sel-Makor, [enter your faved "dark power" here]...
The case for Vitiate is a bit more ambiguous since he's been stated to be the most powerful Force user in history, but this is only certainty as of TOR, we don't know at what point he surpassed Kun. Otherwise yeah, welcome to 2012. 👆
I'm intrigued. Does that version of "history" just count to the "time of the source" or is that a "general" statement like the one made in 1993. It's so confusing, when you don't know how literal you should take those texts. 🙄
Evidently omniscient given he possesses intimate knowledge for example of Emperor Palpatine's efforts to clone himself for example:Moreover the narrations are written concurrent with the events of comics, or rather before the wider galaxy would be able to get hold of this information, if they ever did at all.
Still not familiar with the concept of a truely omniscient narrator, right? He must know things that are unknown to the character within the story he tells in order to qualify, e.g. be capable of predicting future events. This is also known as "Little did he know"-writing. The quotes you listed don't qualify. Actually, they contradict that notion: "The Empire would survive." Uh-huh. 🙄 Not even talking about the fact that Sidious' consciousness wan't transferred from Endor to Byss instantly as we know now.
So no, that he would omit anyone of the foremost Sith Lords in history from his assessment is an idea that can be safely dismissed.
Is that the same guy who says that Ulic would be jealous because of Sidious power, but somehow "omits" Kun from that judgement? 😉 Or is that merely a reason to suggest that Kun would not be jealous because of Sidious power, indicating, that he isn't really inferior to the movie era Sith?
It amuses me how the basics of canon have left you so stunned. Yes dear. Star Wars content written in to continuity provides a framework for how future content will pan out.
It amuses me, how the basics of logic have left you to play alone in the void.
To me, it is logical, that any form of statement issued in 1993 cannot refer directly to events, characters and storylines that were not invented yet. Which would be, kind of, a prerequisite, if that statement wants to compare character X to everything that follows. Now, in this particular case, we have the statement in question edited out of the source in question for reprint and have the author of the statement contradicting his own statement. Still you want to place your bet on the statement.
You still don't see any flaw in terms of reasoning on your side of the fence?
You mean the Canon page on Wookieepedia that literally has this at the very top?(Hint: the first issue of SW Insider was published in 1994.)
Yeah, I respectfully withdraw your rights to refer to me as stupid into the foreseeable future. 😂
I'm very sorry. I just viewed - and typed - on my tablet and literally didn't see that. Though I wonder how you managed to miss the "[...]off-shoots, variants and tangents[...]" part of the quote. So there is one coherent continuity that has "variants"?
No darling because though they may no longer be in print the fact remains that as published Star Wars material they remain canon by definition i.e.:"Lucasfilm canon" refers to anything produced by any of the Lucas companies, whether it be movies, books, games, or internet.
--Leland Chee, Keeper of the Holocron
I never claimed that the definition of canon is that which is in print, that is a false rule that you contrived from my point that being reprinted would lend credence to the idea that they are still valid, but it doesn't define their validity.
I have understood now, that reviewing editing processes and using the results to interprete sources is not your strong suit. When something is taken out of a source, it is obviously no longer part of what the responsible company (or the editor) wants inside. When referring to SW canon, that means it is not canon any longer.
I may point to the infamous cantina shooting scene in "A New Hope" that Lucas altered for the Special Edition of the movie. So did Han Solo shoot first? According to you: He did and did not, because the part "removed" is still part of the canon - it merely depends on what version of the movie you watch. I could also ask wether or not Luke sees a younger / older version of Anakin as a force ghost at the end of RotJ, given that the latest edit has Hayden Christiansen appear there.
That is, by the way, the very definiont of "N-Canon" (as in "not canon"😉 on the page you wanted to call me out for not reading it properly:
"Information cut from canon, deleted scenes, or from canceled Star Wars works falls into this category as well, unless another canonical work references it and it is declared canon."
Information is cut from canon source: N-Canon.
Or in other words you need something more concrete than the assumption that because the Endnotes are no longer in print, they are no longer canon.
See above. it's not an assumption but the very definition of "N-Canon".
Naturally, but your posting history suggests otherwise, as Temp has pointed out several times now. 🙂
Naturally, my posting history supports what I have stated. Temp's pathetically biased interpretation of it, which I have thrown right into his face so often, that it has probably left an imprint, is a different matter. This is perhabs the reason for him dropping out of every debate concerning my posting history, after being confronted with some excerpts from it. Never gets old, though.
Nice but rather besides the point, being that the aforementioned statements are both continous and applicable to Kun. Whether or not they are reliable or not is a seperate matter, but naturally applying the foggy window conceit as a carte blanche to dismiss evidence not to your liking as unreliable, is arbitrary nonsense. No, it only introduces a basis for these so called objective sources to be interrogated through logical and empirical means, but in so far your attempt to do so has been weak and ineffective. 🙂
The statements can't be "continous" as they have been "discontinued" from the source-material and are, therefore, N-Canon, as demonstrated above. They can't likewise be "continues", because we know that this wasn't the intent of the author - and is, aside from that, logically impossible, at least in the way you want it.
Furthermore, I'm wondering why you attempt to defend the quotes, if their reliability might be debateable (if I get your statement correctly).
And finally: You got the meaning of the "foggy windows" quote just right. Yet I see only one person here performing any kind of "logical and empirical examination" of that quotes. So I think that "weak and ineffective" might still be better than "non-existant", which would describe your critical analysis of the source material in question. Not to mention that me being "weak and ineffective" is apparently still enough to own you. I'm very sorry.
Originally posted by The_Tempest
lol
Is it that time of the month again, dear? Poor thing.