Originally posted by Putinbot1
Yeah, but no,https://qz.com/437015/mapped-the-us-states-with-the-most-gun-owners-and-most-gun-deaths/
but what about New Mexico?
We could go on forever,
I understand that there's nothing to debate regarding Australia. Which is why you've introduced a new topic about the US to move the conversation away from Australia's restrictive laws and regulations (putting it near the bottom of the G20 on the "freedometer"😉.
But let's turn this into a debate about gun laws, gun ownership, and gun freedom in the United States because this is your thread and you've moved the goalposts in your own thread.
Regarding that article which employs an often used tactic by dishonest leftists who like to try and sneakily conflate "gun deaths" with "intentional homicide", there's a factual rebuttal for that! 🙂
1. How about not dishonestly correlating gun deaths with gun ownership and instead correlating the honest statistic of homicide rates with gun ownership rates? The point is not to stop gun deaths - that's retarded. The point is to reduce overall intentional homicide or violence. Shifting violence, like Australia did, is not the objective. Actually reducing homicides and violence is the objective.
2. How about not dishonestly sneaking in suicides with gun deaths and instead focusing on gun homicides?
3. How about not dishonestly sneaking in accidental gun deaths and instead focusing on gun homicides?
4. How about not dishonestly sneaking in police gun deaths and instead focusing on gun homicides?
And this often cited study? Well well well, do I have some news for you. Here's what they say that is often cited by anti-gun peeps:
https://ajph.aphapublications.org/doi/full/10.2105/AJPH.2013.301409
[quote]Gun ownership was a significant predictor of firearm homicide rates (incidence rate ratio = 1.009; 95% confidence interval = 1.004, 1.014). This model indicated that for each percentage point increase in gun ownership, the firearm homicide rate increased by 0.9%.[/.quote]
Here's what they did to massage their data:
They used derivative figure for gun ownership rates based on suicide-to-gun-ownership. Had they used the much more accurate data from Injury Prevention (who did not use a derarvative figure based on suicide-to-gun-ownership, but instead used a sample to represent the true population statistic) instead of this very dishonest but sneaky figure, they'd see a much lower gun ownership rate and now their correlation magically disappears. Imagine that, using data that reflects true ownership rates results in their correlation evaporating. Hmm...why would they do this?
Because on this particular topic, they have a political bias:
https://mediabiasfactcheck.com/american-journal-of-public-health-ajph/
And they've been in hot water, before, for their data selection biases:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5343702/
If you don't read anything in my post, read and understand just this:
In the gun debate, anti-gun proponents often use the dishonest tactic of trying to correlate guns with only gun deaths (including suicide) instead of guns with homicides. If the goal is to reduce homicides, then we should look at solutions to reduce homicides. If you want to reduce Road Deaths, you don't look at just Semi-Truck (Lorry) caused deaths, you look at them all.