Originally posted by Surtur
Dude those white men were probably descended from slave owners, f*ck them.
Well, according to Census data from 1860, only 1.4% of the US Population owned slaves at the peak of slave ownership. All of them were in the South. Of the southern states, only 4.9% of people owned slaves.
https://www.politifact.com/factchecks/2017/aug/24/viral-image/viral-post-gets-it-wrong-extent-slavery-1860/
So unless those people have ancestors from those slave holding southern states, it is extremely likely that those murdered mentally ill white men were not slave holders and neither were their ancestors. In raw numbers, just assuming an even distribution of murders across all states (which is not accurate as way more people exist in the US in states that weren't even states in 1860 and way more people live in non-slave-states from 1860 than not), you still have a 98.6% chance of that white man not being related to slave owners.
And why? Because owning a slave was expensive so only the rich in the South could afford slaves. If your family got poor and you lost your plantation or estate, you sold you slaves to get money to live.