Originally posted by Stoic
But What you don’t seem to understand, or reject is that the Runes themselves are an omnipotent source of power unless it went through a retcon. Because we are talking about magic here, the most powerful spells are recited through knowledge. This version of Thor was omniscient and attached to the Runes themselves.What Thor does not have are feats, and that is because of plot. The plot wasn’t the same as it was in Doomsday Clock. Doc. M had a completely different reason for doing what he did than Thor did.
What happens if Doc. M does all of these reality shifts, time displacements and other things that high tier cosmic characters do, but finds that it had zero effect on RK Thor? What proof is there to refute this possibility? He was most certainly not an Odin level character. However if you insist on believing that he was, we will always disagree on his true power level.
RK Thor was omniscient, and omnipotent as well. I do not believe that he was omnipresent though. Again, just follow my reasoning here. Because the Runes gave him omniscience, that omniscience translates to omnipotence because the Runes are an omnipotent source of power, which RK Thor had full knowledge of.
Where did you get that Runes are omnipotent source of magic? Because Odin also had the knowledge of runes and he wasn't any omnipotent than any other skyfather.