Re: EU Continuity problem in KOTOR?
Originally posted by ((The_Anomaly))
Ok well apparently Im known as an “EU hater” around these parts.This is not necessarily to bash EU. However I noticed something that seems to contradict what EU says. Mainly in KOTOR.
We all know that EU is semi-canon (not actual canon but secondary to the movies)
And that EU generally has to follow the movies “canon”
Now feel free to correct anything wrong with my KOTOR stuff as I’ve played it but never beat it myself, though I know the story line for the most part.
However, in KOTOR there is a war. The Sith war? (if I’m right)
Now if I’m correct it’s the Sith against the Republic. No problems so far, right? Wrong.
In Episode II, Sio Bibble, the governor of Naboo says this:
”Its unthinkable, there hasn’t been a full scale war since the formation of the Republic!”
Now correct me if I’m wrong but the Sith wars in KOTOR would prolly constitute a full scale war would they not? I’m pretty damn sure it would seeing as the Republic was almost defeated and the Jedi numbers were dwindling.
This means then that continuity wise, KOTOR doesn’t check out. Since the Sith wars were about what 4000 years before Eps I? (correct if im wrong)
The Rebublic had been around for about 10,000 years as of Eps I.
So if in the “absolute canon” movies, there had not been a full scale war since the formation of the Republic, then how could only 4000 years before that, could there be a full scale war that nearly destroyed the Republic?
It makes no sense.
This is just something I noticed about continuity of EU….
well,there's a simple explanation really, the republic had quite a few full scale wars, usually involving the sith. but the current formation of the republic hasn't had any...
what do I mean by that?
well, looks look at the evidence, the sith were wiped out at the battle of ruusan over a thousand years before episode I. All except Darth Bane who snuck away and created a new sith code after which the sith hid in secret. If this is true, how does Yoda know about the rule of two in episode I? and why does he mention Darth Bane by name in the episode III novel? and how is he so profficient in fighting the sith as to know how to deflect force lightning etc.? Palpatine also mentions a time in which the Sith ruled the galaxy.
I think this implies that the sith continued causing trouble for the Jedi and managed to actually overthrow the republic. A young Yoda defeated them and it was assumed that the sith were extinct and the republic reorganized and reformed its government. this would go on until Darth Sidious 800 or so years later.
Re: Re: EU Continuity problem in KOTOR?
Originally posted by Darth Jello
well,there's a simple explanation really, the republic had quite a few full scale wars, usually involving the sith. but the current formation of the republic hasn't had any...
what do I mean by that?
well, looks look at the evidence, the sith were wiped out at the battle of ruusan over a thousand years before episode I. All except Darth Bane who snuck away and created a new sith code after which the sith hid in secret. If this is true, how does Yoda know about the rule of two in episode I? and why does he mention Darth Bane by name in the episode III novel? and how is he so profficient in fighting the sith as to know how to deflect force lightning etc.? Palpatine also mentions a time in which the Sith ruled the galaxy.
I think this implies that the sith continued causing trouble for the Jedi and managed to actually overthrow the republic. A young Yoda defeated them and it was assumed that the sith were extinct and the republic reorganized and reformed its government. this would go on until Darth Sidious 800 or so years later.
Now That makes sence.