Jesus Christ

Started by ushomefree208 pages

The Councel of Nicea gathered to regulate growing concern over heresy relating to scripture, and yes... the deity of Jesus Christ. And an overwhelming majority supported Jesus Christ's deity; that Jesus, was the Son of God (God in human form). The vote was (if my memory serves me correctly) three-hundred to thirty-one. It wasn't even close (ha ha ha)! Hence, the Nicean Creed. Read your Bible, they got it right!

“Jesus said to them, ‘Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.” John 8:58

By relying on Old Testament references, we find out that “I AM” refers to the name of God Himself, Yahweh (often translated in English Bibles as LORD. The Jews were quite familiar with the idea that the Jehovah of the Old Testament is the eternally existent God. What was new to the Jews, was the identification of this designation with Jesus. They screamed blasphemy!

Jesus answered,... I and My Father are one.' Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. "Jesus answered them, 'Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?' The Jews answered Him, saying, 'For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make yourself God.'" John 10:25-33

"Philip said to Him, 'Lord show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.' Jesus said to him, 'Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, "Show us the Father"?'" John 14:8,9

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist." Colossians 1:15-17

"When Jesus saw their faith, He said to the paralytic, 'Son, your sins are forgiven you.' But some of the scribes were sitting there and reasoning in their hearts, 'Why does this Man speak blasphemies like this? Who can forgive sins but God alone?'" Mark 2:5-7

"Of whom (the Jewish people) are the fathers and from whom, acording to the flesh, Christ came, who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen." Romans 9:5

“Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made Himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in apperance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to death-even death on a cross! Therefore God exalted Him to the highest place and gave Him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” Philippians 2:6-11 NIV

“Looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ.” Titus 2:13

"And we know that the Son of God has come and has given understanding, that we may know him who is true; and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life." 1 John 5:20

John who is an eyewitness of Jesus Christ, makes no hesitation in calling him God!

As often as Jesus speaks of His relations with His Father, He uses constantly and without exception the expression “My Father,” and as often as He calls the attention of the disciples to their childlike relation to God, there is the equally definite characterization “Your Father.” Never does He associate Himself with the disciples and with men by the natural form of speech “Our Father.”

Jesus Christ will (once again) reveal Himself at the second coming, not as a sacrificial lamb, but as the King of Kings and Lord of Lords to destroy the Antichrist and end man’s cruel rule on earth with His heavenly hosts. What an awesome display of power for a mere man!

Originally posted by Jury
Let's try:

[b]Genesis 1:26
And God said, “Let us make man in our image, after our likeness.” (KJV)

Elohim and Adonim, Hebrew words for God, occur in the plural. If this literally meant a plurality of persons, it would be translated “Gods.” But the Jews, being truly monotheistic and thoroughly familiar with the idioms of their own language, have never understood the use of the plural to indicate a plurality of persons within the one God. This use of the plural is for amplification, and is called a “plural of majesty” or a “plural of emphasis,” and is used for intensification. Many Hebrew scholars identify this use of “us” as the use of the plural of majesty or plural of emphasis, and we believe this also.

The plural of majesty is clearly attested to in writing from royalty through the ages. Hyndman writes:

The true explanation of this verse is to be found in the practice which has prevailed in all nations with which we are acquainted, of persons speaking of themselves in the plural number. “Given at our palace,” “It is our pleasure,” are common expressions of kings in their proclamations (p. 54).

Morgridge adds:

It is common in all languages with which we are acquainted, and it appears to have always been so, for an individual, especially if he be a person of great dignity and power, in speaking of himself only, to say we, our, us, instead of I, my, me. Thus, the king of France says, “We, Charles the tenth.” The king of Spain says, “We, Ferdinand the seventh.” The Emperor of Russia says “We, Alexander,” or “We, Nicholas” (p. 93).

The plural of majesty can be seen in Ezra 4:18. In Ezra 4:11, the men of the Trans-Euphrates wrote, “To King Artaxerxes, from your servants.” The book of Ezra continues, “The king sent this reply: Greetings. The letter you sent us has been read and translated….” Thus, although the people wrote to the king himself, the king used the word “us.” It is common in such correspondence that the plural is used when someone speaks of his intentions, and the use of the more literal singular is used when the person acts. Morgridge adds more insight when he says:

It is well known that Mohammed was a determined opposer of the doctrine of the Trinity: yet he often represents God as saying we, our, us, when speaking only of Himself. This shows that, in his opinion, the use of such terms was not indicative of a plurality of persons. If no one infers, from their frequent use in the Koran, that Mohammed was a Trinitarian, surely their occurrence in a few places in the Bible ought not to be made a proof of the doctrine of the Trinity (p. 94).

Some scholars believe that the reason for the “us” in Genesis 1:26 is that God could have been speaking with the angels when he created man in the beginning. Although that is possible, because there are many Scriptures that clearly attribute the creation of man to God alone, I also believe that the plural of emphasis is the preferred explanation. I hope you've heard about it in school.

The name of God is not the only word that is pluralized for emphasis (although when the plural does not seem to be good grammar, the translators usually ignore the Hebrew plural and translate it as a singular, so it can be hard to spot in most English versions)

After Cain murdered Abel, God said to Cain, “the voice of your brother’s bloods cries to me from the ground” (Gen. 4:10). The plural emphasizes the horror of the act. In Genesis 19:11, the men of Sodom who wanted to hurt Lot were smitten with “blindness.” The Hebrew is in the plural, “blindnesses,” and indicates that the blindness was total so Lot would be protected. Leviticus tells people not to eat fruit from a tree for three years, and in the fourth year the fruit is “an offering of praise to the Lord” (Lev. 19:24). The Hebrew word for “praise” is plural, emphasizing that there was to be great praise. Psalm 45:15 tells of people who are brought into the presence of the Messiah. It says, “They are led in with joy and gladness.” The Hebrew actually reads “gladnesses,” emphasizing the great gladness of the occasion. In Ezekiel 25, God is speaking of what has happened to Israel and what He will do about it. Concerning the Philistines, He said, “the Philistines acted in vengeance…I will carry out great vengeance on them” (Ezek 25:15 and 17). In the Hebrew text, the second vengeance, the vengeance of God, is in the plural, indicating the complete vengeance that the Lord will inflict. Although many more examples exist in the Hebrew text, these demonstrate that it is not uncommon to use a plural to emphasize something in Scripture.

🙂 [/B]

Now in Revelation 19:11-16 it states, " And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.
And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean.
And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.
And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS."

These scriptures clearly describe the Word of God as KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS. In scripture, the Supreme Being; Jehovah or Yahweh. When Lord, in the Old Testament, is print in capitals, it is the translation of JEHOVAH or Yahweh. Now this presents a problem, how can the Word, who was "with God" in John 1:1 be known as LORD OF LORDS in Revelation 19:11-16? Especially considering that this title is afforded to God alone? Now the Word in John 1 is translated from the Greek "logos" which means "spokesman", "word", or "revelatory thought"; the Word in John 1 refers to an individual Personage or Being. All things were made by Him, as was stated in John 1. Ephesians 3:9 also states it more clearly, "And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:" Again Christ and the Word are one in the same. Now the Word is called God in John 1, and since Jesus and the Word are the same Being, then Jesus is a God, but not the only God, and not the supreme God. I'm not finished my point yet but I'll have to continue it next time with you, Jury.

I believe in the historical Jesus(Yehoshua). But I don't believe in Christianity. Even though Jesus is the center of the faith, he had nothing to do with it's creation. Nor would he ever follow it, if he were around during it's prime.

I just watched "Science of the Bible" on National Geographic. It would really open up your eyes on what Christianity really is. The truth is, Jesus had no intention of spreading his teachings to the world. He was really a champion of his people to stand up and revolt against the ruthless roman empire. All he ever wanted was to liberate his people and set them free from Roman control. He could careless about starting a new faith, let alone spreading it outside the middle east. He was like an ancient hebrew version of Gandhi. I see Jesus for what he really is-- a charismatic, bold, political hero of the hebrews.

The only reason Jesus's teachings were popular was because of Paul's relentless message using his own interpretted view -- preaching his version throughout the middle east and Greece. And emperor Constantine, who further perverted the faith spread by Paul, is like to Christianity as King Asoka is to Buddhism. If it wasn't for these two, Jesus's teachings and his followers would be a short term cult that would have never had a chance to survive. But then again, Jesus had no intention of what goes on outside of his land, so honestly, he could careless.

But don't blame Paul for everything wrong with Christianity. Once the faith took a hold on the Roman Empire, it combined elements from Mithraism-- which was very, very popular in the empire during christianity's infancy, to win over gentile converts. Henceforth it's popularity and from that point on it spread throughout Europe and then to the whole world.

Jesus was not the "son of God" and neither was he "resurrected from the dead." And he didn't "save us from our sins." These are just myths stemmed from Mithraism and Paul.

PLASE PEOPLEREAD THE BIBLE ITS NOT THAT DIFFICULT TO SEE THAT HE IS GOD

Originally posted by CosmicSurfer
Jesus was not the "son of God" and neither was he "resurrected from the dead." And he didn't "save us from our sins." These are just myths stemmed from Mithraism and Paul.
The evidence would show this, yes....It stemmed from Mithraism and Pauls connection to it along with some gnostic beliefs.....Jesus had a good message as many others did and the Roman Catholic Church Perverted it for control....The church today teaches Paul, not what Jesus taught in scripture...

Originally posted by gp christ loves
PLASE PEOPLEREAD THE BIBLE ITS NOT THAT DIFFICULT TO SEE THAT HE IS GOD

By using all capitals I'm sure you will manage to convince quite a few people that you're right 🙄

Originally posted by ushomefree
The Councel of Nicea gathered to regulate growing concern over heresy relating to scripture, and yes... the deity of Jesus Christ. And an overwhelming majority supported Jesus Christ's deity; that Jesus, was the Son of God (God in human form). The vote was (if my memory serves me correctly) three-hundred to thirty-one. It wasn't even close (ha ha ha)! Hence, the Nicean Creed. Read your Bible, they got it right!

“Jesus said to them, ‘Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.” John 8:58

By relying on Old Testament references, we find out that “I AM” refers to the name of God Himself, Yahweh (often translated in English Bibles as LORD. The Jews were quite familiar with the idea that the Jehovah of the Old Testament is the eternally existent God. What was new to the Jews, was the identification of this designation with Jesus. They screamed blasphemy!

Jesus answered,... I and My Father are one.' Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. "Jesus answered them, 'Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?' The Jews answered Him, saying, 'For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make yourself God.'" John 10:25-33

"Philip said to Him, 'Lord show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.' Jesus said to him, 'Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, "Show us the Father"?'" John 14:8,9

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist." Colossians 1:15-17

"When Jesus saw their faith, He said to the paralytic, 'Son, your sins are forgiven you.' But some of the scribes were sitting there and reasoning in their hearts, 'Why does this Man speak blasphemies like this? Who can forgive sins but God alone?'" Mark 2:5-7

"Of whom (the Jewish people) are the fathers and from whom, acording to the flesh, Christ came, who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen." Romans 9:5

“Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made Himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in apperance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to death-even death on a cross! Therefore God exalted Him to the highest place and gave Him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” Philippians 2:6-11 NIV

“Looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ.” Titus 2:13

"And we know that the Son of God has come and has given understanding, that we may know him who is true; and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life." 1 John 5:20

John who is an eyewitness of Jesus Christ, makes no hesitation in calling him God!

As often as Jesus speaks of His relations with His Father, He uses constantly and without exception the expression “My Father,” and as often as He calls the attention of the disciples to their childlike relation to God, there is the equally definite characterization “Your Father.” Never does He associate Himself with the disciples and with men by the natural form of speech “Our Father.”

Jesus Christ will (once again) reveal Himself at the second coming, not as a sacrificial lamb, but as the King of Kings and Lord of Lords to destroy the Antichrist and end man’s cruel rule on earth with His heavenly hosts. What an awesome display of power for a mere man!

And what did James the brother of Jesus say?...The parts that weren't all included?........I would think James would know him best...

Originally posted by KPrince
Now in Revelation 19:11-16 it states, " And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.
And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean.
And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.
And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS."

These scriptures clearly describe the Word of God as KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS. In scripture, the Supreme Being; Jehovah or Yahweh. When Lord, in the Old Testament, is print in capitals, it is the translation of JEHOVAH or Yahweh. Now this presents a problem, how can the Word, who was "with God" in John 1:1 be known as LORD OF LORDS in Revelation 19:11-16? Especially considering that this title is afforded to God alone? Now the Word in John 1 is translated from the Greek "logos" which means "spokesman", "word", or "revelatory thought"; the Word in John 1 refers to an individual Personage or Being. All things were made by Him, as was stated in John 1. Ephesians 3:9 also states it more clearly, "And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:" Again Christ and the Word are one in the same. Now the Word is called God in John 1, and since Jesus and the Word are the same Being, then Jesus is a God, but not the only God, and not the supreme God. I'm not finished my point yet but I'll have to continue it next time with you, Jury.

Now even Paul acknowledged Jesus as the Lord when he was blinded by him (Read Acts 9:5-6). Jesus Himself answered Paul, confirming what I have stated earlier. Luke 4:34 refers to Jesus as the "Holy One of God".
Jesus describes Himself as "Lord of the Sabbath" Luke 6:5. All other gods are to worship Jesus (Psalm 97:5-7). He is seen standing at the right hand of God the Father by Steven (Acts7:55-57).This scripture connects to Psalm 110:1 "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool." Even King David acknowledged two Divine God Beings in Heaven.

James brother of Jesus taught more Christ saying the gods force lives within you, for your connection....not an outward ritual that the church changed.

Ok...as I have stated before, there are TWO Gods: The Father and the Word/Son who is Jesus. Jesus referred to the Father as the true God because He was Supreme, not because He was the only God. The Father rules over everything, including Christ. Now Jury, you asked for scripture that proves what I am saying. I have shown you multiple verses as evidence of the validity of my argument. You probably want DIRECT proof--exact phrases. "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him." Hebrews 1:1-6

Theses verses indicate the Father speaking about Jesus. God the Father appointed Jesus over all things, and all things were made by the Son as well. Now notice this, "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands..." Hebrews 1: 8-10. The Father, the Supreme GOD, called Jesus a GOD. He set Christ at His Right Hand as explained in verse 3. He commanded the Angels to worship Jesus, and Christ laid the foundations of the Earth and made the heavens by His Hands as explained in verse 10. As explained by my earlier posts, the Word is Jesus; Jesus made all things (as the Father commanded Him); Jesus became flesh, Jesus is a God as the Father is a God.

What then is "Christ"...The denominational view or gnostic/Essene....Christ meaning Christos mean good with in us, as a god source.....In history people were persecuted in the name of Christos....In the name of doing well or very good..........Paul mixted it us with Mithra and some gnostic view.........ENJOY CHURCHES...find out your truth and source

Originally posted by debbiejo
What then is "Christ"...The denominational view or gnostic/Essene....Christ meaning Christos mean good with in us, as a god source.....In history people were persecuted in the name of Christos....In the name of doing well or very good..........Paul mixted it us with Mithra and some gnostic view.........ENJOY CHURCHES...find out your truth and source

Please clarify. I mean no offence, but I need to understand what you are stating here so that I can more properly respond. 😉

The word Christ was originally Christos and was used much at the time of Paul and Jesus time....Christos is not a person, but a means, or doing good...It was mentioned quite often at that time period.....Also scripture has many older pagan miracles mixed into it............As for Paul, he never met Jesus, and tells his story of what he assumes from his point of view.....Now if you look at other works written by James Brother of Jesus, you would see that Jesus was teaching that god is in us, not someone to be worshiped...Paul tried to have James killed at that time.

Originally posted by debbiejo
The word Christ was originally Christos and was used much at the time of Paul and Jesus time....Christos is not a person, but a means, or doing good...It was mentioned quite often at that time period.....Also scripture has many older pagan miracles mixed into it............As for Paul, he never met Jesus, and tells his story of what he assumes from his point of view.....Now if you look at other works written by James Brother of Jesus, you would see that Jesus was teaching that god is in us, not someone to be worshiped...Paul tried to have James killed at that time.

Actually Paul did meet Jesus, after He had been resurrected.

As a voice only and still according to pauls words...

Originally posted by debbiejo
As a voice only and still according to pauls words...

And I suppose Paul's words are suspect to you debbiejo?

Originally posted by KPrince
And I suppose Paul's words are suspect to you debbiejo?
😂 Yes.....Pauls believe in a talking animal and calling it god is just a little strange, and especially since his teaching didn't align themselves with what Jesus taught or the OT....And he also had arguments with the apostles about how things should go.

Originally posted by debbiejo
😂 Yes.....Pauls believe in a talking animal and calling it god is just a little strange, and especially since his teaching didn't align themselves with what Jesus taught or the OT....And he also had arguments with the apostles about how things should go.

A talking animal? No, you have Paul confused with another person. Is this pertaining to him talking to a lion in one of those canons outside the Bible?

Jesus/the Word spoke to Saul (his former name). I posted the scriptures earlier in my debate with Jury.