Originally posted by debbiejo
Jesus was baptised for Jewish purification rights, Paul combined it with Mithraism.
No, it was for the remission of sins.
John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins... I indeed have baptized you with water: but he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost. (Mark 1:4 and Mark 1:8)
"I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance. but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire..." (Matthew 3:11)
And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost (John 1:33).
Pretty clear really. Since Jesus was sinless, John didn't want to baptise Jesus because he was sinless. And then Jesus's baptism was very different than everyone elses.
The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us [not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God], by the resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Peter 3:21).