SpearofDestiny
Perfection
Originally posted by Ushgarak
No not really, because you are still making assumptions about the word 'omnipresent' in extending it to non-physical places. That you want to interpret it like that, fine! But don't expect everyone else to. In the end, your argument also comes down to semantics.
Since when is omnipresent only applied to physical places ? Cuz that's news to me buddy.
Originally posted by Ushgarak
It is indeed very simple! But you are the one not understanding it. You are blinding yourself in your deterimation to score cheap points of logic that frankly have no value.
That's simply your opinion, and nothing more, so I will not bother arguing it.
Originally posted by Ushgarak
Not that it makes any difference at all to anything Christians believe whether he has a presence there or not, but your argument is still deeply flawed.
How is my argument flawed ? I love how you are not actually addressing it, but still attempt to critisize it. Funny.
It's fairly simple, and if you just look at it, you will see:
If there is any where in existence where God is not present, then he is not truly omnipresent. He can't be everywhere "except in this one place", and still be omnipresent.
If God is everywhere and occupies everything, then there can't be an existance where he is not and that is not himself. The only conclusion is that non existence is the only true separation from God.
What part do you not understand ?
Originally posted by chithappens
then the word omnipresent can't be used. either god is omnipresent or not. if god is omnipresent, then god is in all things humans can imagine, period.
👆
I'm glad someone understands.
Originally posted by symmetric chaos
You are clearly refering to the Judeo-Christian god, who is usually viewed as being omnipotent.
But omnipotence and omnipresence are not the same thing. I am sure if you have one, then you can easily obtain the other, but that is besides the point.
I am only discussing omnipresence, not omnipotence. So please stay on topic.
Secondly, back to the point: It is illogical and contradicting for an omnipresent being to not exist in Hell. Then that can only mean that Hell doesn't exist, logically.
I am not saying that the illogical answer cannot be true, only that it is not logical in the first place. Do you understand ?
Originally posted by symmetric chaos
You're making an assumption about perfection.
Even though I still back what I said, you have a point. Arguing what perfection is will lead to a never ending nonsense debate. And it is off topic. So feel free to ignore the statement I made on that.
Originally posted by dadudedemon
I tend agree with the above. I also think that for all intents and purposes, God was omnipresent for the understanding of those the scriptures were originally written for. Due to how in depth people are getting with interpretations, it may become necessary to redefine or even come up with a new word and definition for what God really is. He is virtually omnipotent and omnipresent. To me, he is virtually omniscient as well because it is possible that there are other things beyond God out there. (Such as God having sibling Gods that are in no way shape or form, part of this reality...or he may have a God that is above him...there could be an infinite number of generations of Gods before our God because of omnipresence.)
I can always rely on you to have an open minded and objective response 👆
I think you may be right. I think that this God is logically virtually omnipresent (and omniscient and omnipotent), but not literally.
I think it makes more sense though if God was both good and evil. Or if God wasn't either, but rather the personification of everything.
That way, he can occupy Hell, Earth, Heaven, every facet of the universe, including what's beyond the universe, etc. and still be God. However, if this were the case, he wouldn't be a "he".