Originally posted by Colossus-Big C
What does that have to do with this thread??it only proves that the celestial tech+hulk roughly equals thors god blast in kinetic force
Has nothing to do with damaging juggs
Precisely . It was merely in response to your claim that War never stopped Juggs . Reacting2 unnecessarily brought up this issue .
Originally posted by Reacting2Hulk overpowered his enchantment. War easily tossed him around. Doing these two things leads me to believe he could have hurt/killed him.
yet Hulk failed to Hurt him at all, not one single scratch on him
Originally posted by h1a8The blast wasn't the same due to the hammer being destroyed. Never did the writer say the hammer was weaker. It in fact was reinforced by his belt of strength. You need to read comics. You have never had a legit point in 5 plus years.
The consequence of your logic would imply that objects and characters never have variable durability in comics.If one blast was shown to destroy something and another was shown to not destroy it then we can conclude that either:
1. The first blast has a greater power than the second blast. Or
2. The object's durability changed.But since the writer stated the blasts to be the same it kills 1. and leaves us with 2.
Originally posted by quanchi112Stop trolling Quan and address my points. Repeating the same thing and not addressing another's points isn't debating but trolling. Stop it.The blast wasn't the same due to the hammer being destroyed. Never did the writer say the hammer was weaker. It in fact was reinforced by his belt of strength. You need to read comics. You have never had a legit point in 5 plus years.
This is the point.
If one blast was shown to destroy something and another was shown to not destroy it then we can conclude that either:
1. The first blast has a greater power than the second blast. Or
2. The object's durability changed.
But since the writer stated the blasts to be the same it kills 1. and leaves us with 2.
Originally posted by h1a8The same writer didn't handle both blasts. You need to prove the objects durability changed. The blast obviously did. If you think all godblasts are equal you need to prove it. That's your claim.
Stop trolling Quan and address my points. Repeating the same thing and not addressing another's points isn't debating but trolling. Stop it.This is the point.
If one blast was shown to destroy something and another was shown to not destroy it then we can conclude that either:
1. The first blast has a greater power than the second blast. Or
2. The object's durability changed.But since the writer stated the blasts to be the same it kills 1. and leaves us with 2.
First Thor never said he was back at full strength. If u want to be technical about it he said his mind is clear and strength has returned to his limbs, not that he's at full strength/power, and not that all his godly energies have returned, and unless the power of the God blast comes only from his mind and limbs, then the statement is moot.
Second what evidence is there that it was the writers intention that mjolnir broke because it was weaker as opposed to the blast being more powerful, u know actual evidence, not just personal opinion.
Originally posted by Raptor22
First Thor never said he was back at full strength. If u want to be technical about it he said his mind is clear and strength has returned to his limbs, not that he's at full strength/power, and not that all his godly energies have returned, and unless the power of the God blast comes only from his mind and limbs, then the statement is moot.Second what evidence is there that it was the writers intention that mjolnir broke because it was weaker as opposed to the blast being more powerful, u know actual evidence, not just personal opinion.
It's not about being technical but about understanding the writer's intention through context. It's 5th grade reading material here. The writer was was trying to show that Thor was back. But that is moot since the writer explicitly stated the blast to be the same as before. The writer has the power to do this, not the reader.
Originally posted by quanchi112
The same writer didn't handle both blasts. You need to prove the objects durability changed. The blast obviously did. If you think all godblasts are equal you need to prove it. That's your claim.
If one blast was shown to destroy something and another was shown to not destroy it then we can conclude that either:
1. The first blast has a greater power than the second blast. Or
2. The object's durability changed.
There is no relevant 3rd option. If you disagree then give it.
But since the writer stated the blasts to be the same it kills 1. and leaves us with 2.
Originally posted by TheGodKiller
Unless and until its been stated on-panel that it was of lower durability , then it's still an assumtion on your part . The writer , through Thor's words , merely mentioned that this was a particular attack that Thor had used against Galactus and a Celestial(with varying degrees of success) . If you know , then an attack can be of different intensity . Thor usually holds back against denizens of Midguard . Go figure .****Do you have any evidence to suggest that the uru metal with which the hammer was reforged , was stronger than regular uru ? Or has there been any on-panel indication that after the Exitar incident , Odin strengthened Mjolnir , and gave it a durability boost ? Until and unless on-panel evidence is provided for these questions , we have no choice but to believe that Mjolnir was of the same durability in ALL 3 instances(against Galactus , Exitar and Juggernaut) .
A) The writer of Thor 412 made it clear -
So be it! Thou hast forced me to unleash the most terrifying Asgardian power of all! A power which once hurled back Galactus, the World-eater, and e'en gave pause to an almighty Celestial! I must call forth the god-force which flows within my veins -- and unite it with the irresistible power of mine enchanted Uru mallet! And the God of Thunder shall become one with the hammer supreme! Let the Juggernaut FALL!
B) On panel Thor said the weakness spell had passed and already he was regaining his strength
C) In the rematch, Thor again could not hurt Juggernaut at all and didn't even attempt a Godblast, he resorted to negating his force field and STILL couldn't beat him and had to resort to a BFR (just like the first time).
****After Mjolnir shattered during that "Alone Against the Celestials" arc, it was the Celestials that restored it.
Originally posted by zopzop
Your points fail because :A) The writer of Thor 412 made it clear -
B) On panel Thor said the weakness spell had passed and already he was regaining his strength
C) In the rematch, Thor again could not hurt Juggernaut at all and didn't even attempt a Godblast, he resorted to negating his force field and STILL couldn't beat him and had to resort to a BFR (just like the first time).
****After Mjolnir shattered during that "Alone Against the Celestials" arc, it was the Celestials that restored it.
Do you agree that the belt amped the godblast? If not, why did he do it?
Originally posted by PillarofOsiris
Do you agree that the belt amped the godblast? If not, why did he do it?
It's whole purpose was to reinforce Mjolnir so it wouldn't shatter because "not even sacred Mjolnir can long contain such power" (which is false).
The writer ignored the previous instance when Thor Godblasted and nothing happened to Mjolnir. And then subsequent writers have Thor Godblasting and NOTHING happening to Mjolnir.
So 2 out of 3 times he Godblasted Mjolnir contained the Godblast energies just fine.
Originally posted by h1a8the writer is saying nothing more than Thor is using the same attack the God blast.
It's not about being technical but about understanding the writer's intention through context. It's 5th grade reading material here. The writer was was trying to show that Thor was back. But that is moot since the writer explicitly stated the blast to be the same as before. The writer has the power to do this, not the reader.
Answer this. Since the juggs god blast was the last of the three let's ignore it for a moment and focus on the first two. Do u think the galactus blast and celestial blast were equal. Do u think that was the intention of the celestial arc writer? Do u think the writer had thor wrap the belt around mjolnir only to have it break from the power to show mjolnir being weaker than it was against galactus or to show the blast was more powerful. Do u have any evidence at all that those blasts were the same. And if those two were different how can all three be the same?
Originally posted by h1a8You never proved anything. The blast was greater due to it destroying a reinforced hammer. You need to back your claims.
It's not about being technical but about understanding the writer's intention through context. It's 5th grade reading material here. The writer was was trying to show that Thor was back. But that is moot since the writer explicitly stated the blast to be the same as before. The writer has the power to do this, not the reader.I just proved that the durability changed. Here it is again:
If one blast was shown to destroy something and another was shown to not destroy it then we can conclude that either:
1. The first blast has a greater power than the second blast. Or
2. The object's durability changed.There is no relevant 3rd option. If you disagree then give it.
But since the writer stated the blasts to be the same it kills 1. and leaves us with 2.
Originally posted by Raptor22
the writer is saying nothing more than Thor is using the same attack the God blast.Answer this. Since the juggs god blast was the last of the three let's ignore it for a moment and focus on the first two. Do u think the galactus blast and celestial blast were equal. Do u think that was the intention of the celestial arc writer? Do u think the writer had thor wrap the belt around mjolnir only to have it break from the power to show mjolnir being weaker than it was against galactus or to show the blast was more powerful. Do u have any evidence at all that those blasts were the same. And if those two were different how can all three be the same?
So be it! Thou hast forced me to unleash the most terrifying Asgardian power of all! A power which once hurled back Galactus, the World-eater, and e'en gave pause to an almighty Celestial! I must call forth the god-force which flows within my veins -- and unite it with the irresistible power of mine enchanted Uru mallet! And the God of Thunder shall become one with the hammer supreme! Let the Juggernaut FALL!
Why do u keep ignoring the fact that word power could mean two different things here. One being a special ability like the God blast, heat vision, optic blasts, and the other the amount of energy produced such as supermans heat vision had a power of 10 degrees, 20 degrees, and so on. And since that's the only evidence u have to support your stance and it not only supprots my stance as much as yours it also contradicts several other logical pieces of evidence (him not being fully recovered, the use of the belt, and the hammer breaking), I'm gonna have to call your argument weak and lacking of substance.
Originally posted by Reacting2even though u haven't offered anything to this debate so far I'll humor u. What feat, fact, or statement has been offered that I have ignored and have not responded to or addressed?
the fact you choose to ignore on panel feat and statements from the writer is beyond weak at this point. its borderline trolling
Originally posted by Raptor22
even though u haven't offered anything to this debate so far I'll humor u. What feat, fact, or statement has been offered that I have ignored and have not responded to or addressed?
Originally posted by quanchi112
He overpowered the unstoppable momentum enchantment. LOL.
Originally posted by Colossus-Big C😎
What does that have to do with this thread??it only proves that the celestial tech+hulk roughly equals thors god blast in kinetic force
Has nothing to do with damaging juggs