Oliver North
Junior Member
Originally posted by S_W_LeGenD
Don't try to twist my points and quote them out of context to favor your mindset.
I must be dense, because it seems like you were saying our higher cognition doesn't mean anything in controlling our behaviour, and then you said that, because we have laws, people control their behaviour.
The existence of laws and moral codes necessitates some degree of higher cognitive function. A law can't restrain the behaviour of an organism without the cognitive function to interpret it.
Please highlight what I misinterpreted.
Originally posted by S_W_LeGenD
Also, incidents will increase with decrease in morality.
[citation needed]
given, you know, the rise of liberal values in North America is accompanied by the largest drop in crime in human history
Originally posted by S_W_LeGenD
Genius, ever wondered that what RULES and REGULATIONS are for? People do not restrain themselves due to their own intelligence but due to fear of penalization.
thats a different point entirely though.
you are wrong, and in fact people have very well developed natural forms of morality that are not instructed by law. But even if it were the case that law is required for moral behaviour, higher cognitive function is required for laws to even exist, essentially making this above point in support of what I was saying.
Originally posted by S_W_LeGenD
Also, why nudity is not acceptable as norm in most societies? Ever wondered?
are you asking why it isn't a norm or why there are taboos against it?
I'd imagine clothing is the norm for pragmatic reasons that have nothing to do with sexual modesty. That would come much later as people tried to limit sexual expression because of issues involving hereditary political structures.
EDIT:
Originally posted by S_W_LeGenD
And read this: http://www.hrw.org/news/2008/12/18/us-soaring-rates-rape-and-violence-against-women
this involves a study of rape in 2008.
Rape is a tough one, because the way rape is defined gives strange impressions to the data. For instance, it was still legal to rape one's wife into the 1980s. On paper, it appears there is a large increase once the laws were changed, in actuality, the rates stayed the same or were dropping.
To emphasize this point, while Human Rights Watch reports a raise in instances over that period, the UN reports that instances of rape were decreasing in both absolute terms, and in terms of proportion of the population, in the US:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rape_statistics#UN_Rape_Statistics
Additionally, raises over the span of a couple of years are entirely expected given the current crime rate. The rate of crimes has fallen so greatly in the past few decades, that we have likely reached a floor of how much crime a particular society can actually eliminate. You see these all the time, Toronto is currently seeing it in regard to gun violence. There are small blips in data where it appears things are changing, but it is only an "increase" relative to a very, very low mean, and these blips almost always disappear in a long term trend. Its an easy way to get a headline, but statistically, it is meaningless.
You would need data that goes beyond a 2 year period. Additionally, the study they link in the article you posted isn't available any longer, can you find another version of it? I'd like to read more about the methodology.