Originally posted by Tondemonai
Not really. He based the Dark Empire on the principle that it would "follow the Dark Side's will." He intended to take over the galaxy and, since the galaxy's population would be under rule of the Dark Empire, every being would have to follow the will of the Dark Side, and the quote could be interpreted to mean that his goals were achievable (which they clearly were, if the Skywalkers hadn't been a factor).
This interpretation requires more substance to back it up. If you can form a coherent and logical argument with evidence behind it, I will consider addressing it, but this, in your own words, is stretching, without quotes and things to back it up.
The most straightforward interpretation here is that Palpatine planned to use the dark side to control everyone in the galaxy after he had abolished the Empire and the New Republic, but that he was already capable of it. That's basically what the quote says word-for-word.
Admittedly stretching here, but it seems extremely unlikely he would not use this power if he was capable of it. It would've meant he didn't even need to use the galaxy gun on Da Soocha, he could've casually dominated the planes population. He also could've easily dominated Luke and Leia since they had nowhere near the training or feats necessary to imply they could handle TP strong enough to slave the entire galaxy.
He did dominate Luke with laughable ease on multiple occasions, and invaded and KO'd Leia from across the galaxy.
But honestly, I have no clue whatsoever as to why he didn't use his power from the get-go. But I don't need to for the quote to remain valid. From the wording it is apparent that he was already capable of it as of DE, but simply chose to do it after he had defeated all the opposing governments in the galaxy. As to why, your guess is as good as mine.
Hell, it's possible this quote is simply saying he's capable of using a ritual to dominate the galaxy.
Unless you can spot the word "ritual" in the text, then no, it isn't.
Originally posted by nfactor1995
Does "using the dark side to control" explicitly mean he is TPing everyone in the galaxy? Or could this just mean that he is subtly influencing and manipulating people over time (which is what was shown/implied in the movies) while using the dark side to help with that?
This isn't the movies. This is a comic book where Palpatine has grown significantly since his last on-screen appearance, and throws around world-destroying wormholes and enslaves entire civilizations with his mind and then leeches off of their life force.
But no, if he'd be subtly manipulating them, then he wouldn't be using the dark side to control them, but simply his silver tongue, which isn't what the quote says. It says that he uses the dark side to control them, which implies mind domination.
Originally posted by Beniboybling
You're grasping at straws here Az, the idea that Palpatine would have used TP to bring the galaxy under his control is no less solid an interpretation than any other reading that's been provided, as there are multiple ways in which he could have achieved this.
Not seeing how. My interpretation is more solid than saying he would have done it with a ritual or have everyone follow "the will of the dark side". The quote says that he plans to bring about a new form of government, in which he's use the dark side to control everyone. You can take a wild guess as to how one would go about controllig someone with the dark side, but usually one would arrive at Telepathy as the most straightforward conclusion.
Originally posted by Beniboybling
*and everything. FYI: things can't be controlled by TP.
But people can 🙂 And for those things he can't use TP to control, he'll use other powers like TK 👆
And elsewhere Palpatine described how he planned to implement a govt of dark side individuals and substitute weapons of control like the Death Star for the dark side so no I wouldn't say that's the most straightforward interpretation at all. [/B]
Please provide said quotes. We'll see then.
Re: New God tier Telepathy feat for Darth Sidious (DE)
Originally posted by Azronger
--Official Starships and Vehicle Collection #64--The Essential Atlas[/i]
Suck it, Valkorion
Originally posted by Azronger
Argument from ignorance. Simply because he didn't doesn't mean he can't. And based on this quote, he clearly can.
Ignorance? Kek.
If he could've telepathically dominated the Skywalkers for as long as he wanted, don't you think he would've...? Makes zero sense. He can't, as he didn't demonstrate he could do it when the opportunity was presented to him. The Skywalkers are part of the entirety of the galaxy's inhabitants, so the 'telepathically capable of controlling the entire galaxy' argument pretty much stops there.
The fact is, there are several ways in which Palpatine could be capable of controlling the galaxy by using the dark side, and 'telepathically' is probably one of the most far-fetched theories, lol.
Originally posted by Petrus
Ignorance? Kek.
Yes, that's the name of the fallacy.
If he could've telepathically dominated the Skywalkers for as long as he wanted, don't you think he would've...? Makes zero sense.
Except that a mere hologram recording of Palpatine dominated Luke. That's literally like only a fraction of a fraction of Palpatine's true power. And later on he went and turned Luke into a mental slave in DE, and yet again in DE II he probed his mind from across the galaxy and Luke was totally helpless before him. As for Leia, he has probed her mind and also KO'd her from across the galaxy with telepathy.
Both Skywalker twins are absolute fodder for him in a telepathy battle. Why he didn't continuously dominate them - I don't know. But again, I don't need to, and that in no way invalidates the quote.
He can't, as he didn't demonstrate he could do it when the opportunity was presented to him. The Skywalkers are part of the entirety of the galaxy's inhabitants, so the 'telepathically capable of controlling the entire galaxy' argument pretty much stops there.
He could, and even if he couldn't, then that would only make the Skywalkers exceptions. Nothing more, nothing less. The quote would still be perfectly valid.
The fact is, there are several ways in which Palpatine could be capable of controlling the galaxy by using the dark side, and 'telepathically' is probably one of the most far-fetched theories, lol.
It's not far-fetched at all. But please, by all means present your other theories, then.
Originally posted by AzrongerNah, you would since the quote explicitly says everything and anyone and you are trying to draw the inference that it is referring solely to telepathy. It stands to reason that Sidious could use the dark side to control the Skywalker . . . just not by means as overt as telepathy.
I don't know, nor do I need to for this quote to be valid.
Originally posted by Dark-Kenshin
Nah, you would since the quote explicitly says everything and anyone and you are trying to draw the inference that it is referring solely to telepathy. It stands to reason that Sidious could use the dark side to control the Skywalker . . . just not by means as overt as telepathy.
Unless someone can come up with a reasonable alternative that I am unable to debunk, then the most straightforward conclusion is telepathy. How else would you control someone with the dark side? As such, there is no need for me to make any sort of explanations for Palpatine not using it when he could've. It's stated in the quote he could; questions relating to "why" are irrelevant.
Originally posted by Azrongertbh the fallacy here is u taking your interpretation of the quote and presenting it as fact, and then asking others to disprove something that you not only haven't even proven yet, but have offered nothing more than what you believe to be is the most likely interpretation.
Yes, that's the name of the fallacy.
Originally posted by Raptor22
tbh the fallacy here is u taking your interpretation of the quote and presenting it as fact, and then asking others to disprove something that you not only haven't even proven yet, but have offered nothing more than what you believe to be is the most likely interpretation.
I never presented it as fact that he used Telepathy to do this; I merely have stated that it is the most straightforward conclusion I could draw from "using the dark side to control everybody." If you were asked to interpret the following piece of text without any supplementary material...
"A Jedi can use the Force to lift a stone"
...I'd bet a hundred bucks you'd arrive at Telekinesis as the most straightforward conclusion, since the Force power you use to lift objects is known as Telekinesis. Similarly, the dark side power used to control other people is Dominate Mind, which falls under Telepathy. You can't use Force Lightning to control others; you can't use Force Rage, nor Force Drain, nor Force Scream or any other ability that I am aware of.
Would you accuse someone of fallacious debating if he passed Yoda using TK here as fact? I know I wouldn't, since it's simply the most straightforward conclusion to make, rather than suggesting it was just really strong wind or something along those lines.
