Homosexuality: Chosen or Genetic?

Originally posted by Regret
No, it is not hypocritical. Since the biological factor does not absolutely decide the issue, it is not more significant than the variable/s that impact the sexual orientation, especially given that genetic variables related to behaviors are in effect passive.

In absence of any intrinsic biological substrates would the same behavioural outcome (sexuality) be achieved?

Methinks not.

There would have to be a genetic foundation "gay gene(?)" to begin with, otherwise it would stand to reason that anyone could "learn" to be gay. Which in turn would make everyone born 'sexually neutral' and that just doesn't make sense.

Originally posted by Lord Urizen
I love how you twist the words choice and punishment to suit your own biases and validate your religion.

You are not using the true definitions of choice or punishment.

Originally posted by Robtard
There would have to be a genetic foundation "gay gene" to begin with, otherwise it would stand to reason that anyone could "learn" to be gay. Which in turn would make everyone born 'sexually neutral' and that just doesn't make sense.

Originally posted by xmarksthespot
Notwithstanding that you don't actually have evidences of said nonbiological environmental variables, how exactly does incomplete genetic penetrance or an incomplete influence of other factors such as epigenetics or the maternal biological environment provided during gestation, imply that the nonbiological environmental variables are the ultimate and absolute deciding factor in determining sexual orientation?

In absence of any intrinsic biological substrates would the same behavioural outcome (sexuality) be achieved?

Methinks not.

Besides, even if there are non-biological variables, that DOESNT mean at all that they have a significant role on sexuality. They may have a minor role. But let me stress that they cover redunant factors and are not enough by themselves to change sexuality.

Alter, maybe, but change...NO.

Originally posted by Regret
Not neutral, predisposed to a sexual orientation. Thus genetic influences merely set the probabilities prior to stimuli and events impacting the issue.

Exactly, so genetics first and foremost are the reason for homosexuality. Without these preset factors, no amount* of outside influence could "teach" someone to be gay. Correct?

(*Extreme outlandish scenarios withholding)

Originally posted by Alliance
Besides, even if there are non-biological variables, that DOESNT mean at all that they have a significant role on sexuality. They may have a minor role. But let me stress that they cover redunant factors and are not enough by themselves to change sexuality.

Alter, maybe, but change...NO.

Originally posted by Robtard
Exactly, so genetics first and foremost are the reason for homosexuality. Without these preset factors, no amount* of outside influence could "teach" someone to be gay. Correct?

(*Extreme outlandish scenarios withholding)

Originally posted by Robtard
There would have to be a genetic foundation "gay gene(?)" to begin with, otherwise it would stand to reason that anyone could "learn" to be gay. Which in turn would make everyone born 'sexually neutral' and that just doesn't make sense.

Originally posted by lord xyz
Everyone's born sexually hetro, but can turn to homo due to environmental trauma and propoganda.

What an incredibly idiotic statement...

There are plenty of gay people out there without trauma's or without propoganda telling them to be gay... Actually to be honest I can't think of anybody that turned gay because of propoganda...

Originally posted by Regret
I wouldn't say that. Stating such is stating that genetics absolutely determines sexuality, when such is not the case. Experience could result in either, the probability of one over the other is the only aspect I believe genetics plays given current research.

I'm assuming you are a straight man, you not only engage in sexual relations with women, but you also find them sexually attractive. Knowing that, could any outside factors turn (teach) you homosexual(ity)? Mind you, I am not saying make you just have sex with another man, but genuinely find that man/men sexually attractive?

Originally posted by Fishy
What an incredibly idiotic statement...

There are plenty of gay people out there without trauma's or without propoganda telling them to be gay... Actually to be honest I can't think of anybody that turned gay because of propoganda...

Exactly, as a general rule, homosexuality is seen as a social negative.

Originally posted by lord xyz
Everyone's born sexually hetro, but can turn to homo due to environmental trauma and propoganda.

i was born attracted to women? how come it took over 10 years?
wtf? am i defective or are you just deluded into the notion that you have the power to convert baseless opinion into scientific fact? lots of that going on at kmc.

Originally posted by lord xyz
Everyone's born sexually hetro, but can turn to homo due to environmental trauma and propoganda.

Guys, he's 14-15 and British... Take that into consideration

Originally posted by Robtard
I'm assuming you are a straight man, you not only engage in sexual relations with women, but you also find them sexually attractive. Knowing that, could any outside factors turn (teach) you homosexual(ity)? Mind you, I am not saying make you just have sex with another man, but genuinely find that man/men sexually attractive?

"Behavior [overt or covert] is a function of its consequences."

Given this, I am unsure if, given my history of received reinforcement for heterosexual behavior (overt and covert), there would be sufficient time left in my life to absolutely alter my sexuality such.

Originally posted by Regret
I believe that experience could shape such.

"Behavior [overt or covert] is a function of its consequences."

Given this, I am unsure if, given my history of received reinforcement for heterosexual behavior (overt and covert), there would be sufficient time left in my life to absolutely alter my sexuality such.

wow, that's a big pile of shit.

Originally posted by Regret
I believe that experience could shape such.

"Behavior [overt or covert] is a function of its consequences."

Given this, I am unsure if, given my history of received reinforcement for heterosexual behavior (overt and covert), there would be sufficient time left in my life to absolutely alter my sexuality such.

I am asking you, what would it take for you to be genuinely sexually attracted to men (not sex w/ men), since above you stated that you disagreed with the APA on the stance that once sexualuty is set it cannot be changed?

Originally posted by Robtard
I am asking you, what would it take for you to be genuinely sexually attracted to men (not sex w/ men), since above you stated that you disagreed with the APA on the stance that once sexually is set it cannot be changed?