Perhaps you should study Philosophy 101 because "A > B; B > C; C > D" is not only a valid argument, it is also sound.
Clearly, you aren't understanding what im saying.
You can only have knowledge of something before hand if there is something to have knowledge of. The result of a choice does not exist until after the choice has been made, therefore there is nothing to have knowledge of before hand.
Nothing exists until it exists. Its irrelevant if the result of choice exists, because we are talking about foreknowledge here. Just as an action or an event may have never occured yet, foreknolwedge makes for pre awareness.
One does have to follow what is known by foreknowledge for foreknowledge to be accurate. If one is free to do differently then what is known by foreknowledge, then foreknowledge would be wrong.
You just said right there, if somebody is free to do something other than what foreknowledge knows. But as ive pointed out, that is a faulty argument. Making a choice has no bearing on whether or not foreknowledge can exist. Foreknowledge doesnt constrain ones ability to make a choice. One was free to do what they wanted to, but foreknowledge is pre existing knowledge of what they do with that freedom. You are suggesting that they change it but there is nothing to change because it was never forced. It was their choice.