Originally posted by Shakyamunison
I don't believe in the bible, so why would my position have anything to do with the bible?
The fact that you view the Bible as false is irrelevant; but "why" you view the Bible as false is relevant. You need to validate how you came to such conclusions, please.
Originally posted by Shakyamunison
The reason I adhere to the position of the article? I really don't understand that question. Can you rephrase it for me? But take your time, I have to go to dinner now, and may not be back on until later.
Within the context of our discussion, you stated that prophetic Scripture is the product of "postdiction." In order for you to agree with the contents of the article, you must have a point of reference (or references) in which to base your views. With all in mind, you should have the capacity to provide examples of false prophetic Scripture within the terms (or definitions) provided in the WikiPedia article. Failing to meet this requirement, forces one to assume that you have bias (or uninformed) views.
This standard (or requirement) also applies to me; I disagree, and, in response, provided examples--a point of reference--to dismiss the claims housed in the WikiPedia article. First, and this is important to note, the article you provided serves purpose to Nostradamus and James Van Praagh, not the Bible; but I will entertain the premise.
In assuming my position on the WikiPedia article, I provided prophetic Scripture (complimented with commentary). I provided the following:
(1) "I am poured out like water, and all my bones are disjointed; my heart is like wax, melting within me" (Ps. 22:14).
(2) "They pierced my hands and my feet" (Ps. 22:16), and
(3) "He protects all his bones; not one of them is broken" (Ps. 34:20).
At first glance, the following Scripture fall short in addressing the first premise of the Wikipedia article--that prophecy thwarted by Nostradamus and James Van Praagh is vague. In keeping the article in context, I agree; but in correlation to prophetic Scripture, I disagree. And this has nothing to do with Jesus of Nazareth.
Let me explain, please.
The Scripture that I provided (in this post and the previous) deal specifically with the characteristics of "crucifixion"--the manner in which the coming Messiah will be executed. Regardless of who the coming Messiah may be, I am able to make this assumption in lore of Scriptural context; the context of the Scripture (in this post and the previous) entail the manner in which the coming Messiah will be executed. Never mind Jesus of Nazareth for a moment.
The Scripture at hand speaks of:
(1) Bones being "disjointed,"
(2) Unbroken bones,
(3) "Pierced" hands and feet.
Regardless of who the Messiah may be, the method of execution Scripture paints, obviously deals with "crucifixion." There is no other alternative. Noting the historical record of Jesus of Nazareth, Jesus was crucified in this precise manner; moreover, the bones of the coming Messiah would not be broken.
We must note, before reading further, that I am being critical about three references to Scripture; but Jesus of Nazareth fits the glove precisely. When you take the time to research the hundreds of Scripture available in the Bible (concerning the coming Messiah), you are forced to make two conclusions:
(1) This is an amazing coincidence, or
(2) Prophecy is a revelation from God Himself (to ensure mankind takes heed of the Messiah).
And to drive the point home, we must note, that the book of Psalm was written 300 BC--300 years before "crucifixion" was a method of Roman execution.
Now... it must be noted, that I have referenced only three passages. A more extensive list of prophetic Scripture was provided at the mark of this thread--even that list is incomplete. Hundreds of prophecies deal with the coming Messiah, and all can be understood in light of Scriptural context and history; we can debate this claim; but you must, at minimum, understand my perspective. To make the statement, "It never said Jesus or crucifixion," is utterly shortsighted--some may postulate "arrogant" or "unfair."
When dealing with historical matters, the student (or historian) is forced to make assumptions based on circumstantial evidence (or probabilities). What is most plausible? And in my view, to dismiss my post by stating, "It never said Jesus or crucifixion," is weak; it ignores history and the integrity of Scripture. If you lack the capacity to bring forth a more compelling argument--once with persuasive authority--I think it is best that you and I put this discussion to rest. I do appreciate the discussion, nonetheless.