Originally posted by ares834
It makes perfect sense. He want's to ask Grindelwald who took the wand. He even asks him, "Who possesses it."
That is quite irrelevant to the section of the post you quoted. haha
But if you want to make that point, I would refer you to this:
"I knew you'd come one day. But surely you must know I no longer have what you seek."
Implies quite a lot.
Implies:
1. He knew Voldemort would want the wand.
2. He knew that Voledmort knew he did not have the wand.
For me, that scene implies that Voldemort was just confirming what he already knew and he was angry with the answer: just observe what happens after he was told. He gets a nasty look on his face and quickly blasts out of the room. He mad. He real mad. In the book, it speaks more directly to Voldemort's frustration with Grindelwald's answer. Now why would he be mad about the answer? "
Originally posted by ares834
Why would he not want to go to Hogwarts? He loves Hogwarts, plus at this time it is under control of his Death Eaters.
It was? I thought that was a secret that he took over and it was the ministry of magic that had it under control (at that point in the film).
Also, if he could get in, why the barrier? Lastly, why was the tomb not behind the barrier? Holy shit, dude...like...I have so many legit questions that makes it confusing as to why Voldemort did not just go straight to Dumbeldore's tomb.
Why did he not go straight to Dumbledore's tomb before confronting Gregorovitch (we can say that he did not know about the wand and if he did, he did not know if it was even worth seeking...he only needed a wand to defeat Harry. However, that does not explain everything. We can also say that Voldemort knew that such artifcats would have special requirements or abilities that needed to be known before he idiotically sought after them...that seems more likely the explanation)? Why did he not go straight to Dumbledore after talking to Gregorovitch (this is where the true fail begins, imo)?
Originally posted by ares834
Figure of speech. He does talk, but all we see him do is taunt Voldemort. Grindelwald even claims he never had it.
Oh! So your story changes? Cool! 😄
But, you can't have your cake and eat it, too. Either he said nothing or he said stuff. Both scenarios support my position about Voldy knowing where it was before talking to Mr. Taint. 😄
Originally posted by ares834
Anyway, TheGodKiller already showed why we can tell Voldemort did not know who had the wand in the books.
Ignored. He's mostly a harmless troll. You're the only one important. 😉
Originally posted by ares834
Perhaps it was easier.
Or perhaps...and this is the most likely reason..........
Rowling wrote in some serious CIS and it caused PIS. 😐
That's the real reason. 😐
Originally posted by ares834
Quite right. However, Dumbledore had quite a bit of time in this case as Harry was able to shout "look out" (or something similar) in the time between the two attacks and Dumbledore's defense. That should be plenty of time for Dumbledore to apparate away.
Maybe...maybe....but there could be something else at play and it would explain a LOT about duels in the books and movies. If everyone had to just apparate away to avoid getting hit, why does anyone get hit about half the time (surprise hits work but face to face hits shouldn't happen)? I don't think Dumbledore had enough time, either, as it reads in the books. Also, I highly doubt Dumbledore needed any shout-help from Harry.
But if that is the case, it shows, yet again, why Dumbledore was outmatched in that duel. awesome He needed Harry's help.