Okay. You said...
Jesus is part of God, he came in the flesh, he was the word.Before Jesus death, some could speak directly to God but they were also responsible for their sins. They had to sacrifice.
After Jesus died for man's sins (Jesus was the word before he came in the flesh) then he became the intermediate. Jesus is not exactly God, he is part of God, as is the Holy spirt.
I didn't say you say they were the Father. 🙂
Again, if you believe that Jesus is not exactly God, then we don't have problem... because Jesus Christ is not the God. Now, I say that Jesus is not the Father of course, because He is the Son. I know you agree with it. Since the Father is the only true God and Jesus Christ is not the Father, definitely Jesus Christ is not God.
Because when we say that the Father is God and Jesus Christ is also God, and the Father is not the Son, then we will have two Gods since these two persons are distinct from each other and two different persons, not one.
I know that Jesus was the "Word" mentioned from the Bible. But in the passage itself: "In the beginning was the Word (Logos, Verbo), and the Word was with God, and the word was God (Gk. theos)". [John 1:1], it means that before everything was created, God has already a plan concerning Jesus Christ. It is not the same as saying that Jesus Christ Himself already existed with form - whether a spirit or a human being - the Bible did not mention about it.
1. a word, not in the grammatical sense of a mere name ... but a word as embodying a conception or idea.
A Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament, pp. 270-271
1,1: ... St. John employs the term Word. It is so used only by St. John ... and designates the Son as a kind of intellectual emanation from the Father.
Douay Version
Clearly, what was with God in the beginning was His concept or plan or idea (logos) about the Christ who would be coming into the world. The term "logos" does not refer to someone who was co-existing with God in the beginning.
The Word or "logos" is not another God but refers to the idea about Christ, which was "with God" or in God's mind in the beginning.
Thus, the clause, the "logos" was with God, indicates that the "logos" is different or distinguished from God. This position does not contradict the biblical doctrine on the absolute oneness of God. On the other hand, if we were to accept the position that the "logos" is a being who, although is distinguished from God, is also God, we would face the prospect of accepting an unbiblical position that there are two Gods.
Now, what does it mean that the "logos" was "with God"? About what was this concept or idea that intellectually emanated from Him?
I Peter 1:20 has the answer:
"For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you."
God has foreknown Christ before the foundation of the world. To foreknow means to know something before it happens: to have knowledge or awareness that something is going to happen. The Greek word used in this verse is "proginosko" which is defined in Perschbacher's The New Analytical Greek Lexicon as "to determine on beforehand, to foreordain." (p.345)
Now, when did Christ, who was a plan or word in the beginning, come into existence? -- When he was born of a woman. The Bible says:
"But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law."
Galatians 4:4
Christ existed only when He was born. He had no prior existence. In the beginning, it was not Christ Himself who was with God; it was the concept or idea (logos) that was in the mind of God, for God had destined Christ to play an integral part in His master plan of salvation (Ephesians 3:20-21). 🙂
The word "God" (in Greek, theos) in the third clause of John 1:1 is not a noun but an adjective. And this is attested to by Greek grammarians, such as R.H. Strachan. In his book The Fourth Gospel: It's Significance and Environment, he explains:
The closing words of v.I should be translated, "the Logos was divine". Here the word "theos" has no article, thus giving it the significance of an adjective." (p.99)
William Barclay, another Greek grammarian, agrees with Strachan in classifying the term "theos" in the third clause of John 1:1 as an adjective.
Finally John says that the word was God. This is a difficult saying for us to understand, and it is difficult because Greek, in which John wrote, had a different way of saying things from the way in which English speaks. When Greek uses a noun it almost always uses the definite article with it. The Greek for God is "theos" and the definite article is "ho". When Greek speaks about God it does not simply say "theos"; it says "ho theos". Now when Greek does not use the definite article with a noun that noun becomes much more like an adjective. John did not say that the word was "ho theos"; that would have been to say that the word was identical with God. He said that the word was "theos" - without the article - which means that the word was, we might say, of the very same character and quality and essence and being as God. (p.39)
Even the Bible translators agree that the term "theos" in the third clause of John 1:1 is an adjective. Here's one of the versions:
The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine (Moffatt's Translation)
What does it mean that the "logos" was divine? It means that the word of God is with power (Like 1:37) for the true God who has spoken the word is powerful (Genesis 35:11). Since God is Almighty, He alone has the ability to plan something and the power to bring it to completion as He testified in Isaiah 46:11,
Truly I have spoken; truly I will bring it to pass, I have planned it surely I will do it.
God's plan of bringing His Son into the world was fulfilled when Jesus was born of His mother Mary. His birth is the fulfillment of what John wrote that "the Word was made flesh" (John 1:14).
Contrary to what some have postulated that Christ took a different form, i.e., from being God into being human, Christ never transformed Himself from being a pure spirit into an infant. He was conceived in Mary's womb through the agency of the Holy Spirit.
The Bible is clear in its teaching that God does not change (Malachi 3:6) even a shadow of turning (James 1:17).
🙂
Now, this is what I am trying to say clickclic:
Let's just say that Christ is the part of God, and so as the Holy Spirit. Still, this doesn't make Him God, because it will contradict the idea of the Bible that the Father is the only true God. Yes. I know you agree that Jesus is not God. But you used "not exactly", which seems that you are not that sure. But no big deal really, since we both agree that Jesus Christ is not God.. as the Bible also agreed.
That is, when you say that Jesus is the part of God and that makes Him God and yet you still believe that Jesus Christ is not exactly God, then you contradict yourself.
Now, these three: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are existing as three distinct "persons"... not as one God. If these three make up one God, then, why would Jesus proclaim that the Father is the only true God?
Jn 17:1-3, (NIV)
1 After Jesus said this, he looked towards heaven and prayed: "Father, the time has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you.
2 For you granted him authority over all people that he might give eternal life to all those you have given him.
3 Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.
🙂
CHRONICLES...even the Didache, or 'Teaching of the Twelve Apostles', the oldest literary monument of Christian antiquity ourside of the New Testament canon... contains no formal profession of faith in the Divinity of Jesus Christ...
Rt. Rev. Msgr. Joseph Pohle
The Divine Trinity