Jesus Christ

Answear to #3)um, It kinda goes back to my answear to your second question. Jesus call's God his God, God the Father calls Jesus his God, it can be assumed that they are glorifing each other, as seen thoughout all of John Chapter 17.
Answear to #4)Philippians 2:5–11 states that Jesus had equality by nature with God, but voluntarily took on the lower position of a servant(only while he was on earth, but when he rose from the dead he was once aganin equal to the father). Remember Jesus has TWO natures. He can be tempted because he became a servant as Philippians 2:5–11 states. He came as a human so he he could (for a time ) be tempted.
Answear to #5) Because he is the only true God. Just as Jesus is called Lord, God, I AM, etc. The Father is the true God by nature. this dosent mean that Jesus is not God.
Answear to #6)This aganin, is a question that stems from ignorace of how Christians believe Jesus is God. We believe Jesus is God BY NATURE. Wee do NOT believe Jesus is the person of the Father. He can NOT be the Father, since He prayed to the Father in Jn. 17.He wasn't praying to Himself. The Bible teaches that Jesus is God by NATURE, as the Father and the Holy Spirit are.
Answear to #7)Jesus was makeing himself equal to God here. Well Jesus told his disciples this because they were monothestic jews and didnt have the understanding of the Trinty. So, Jesus is telling them that they belive in God, so also blive in Him showing that He is Divine.
Answear to #8)God is not greater than Jesus. For a period of tome (while Jesus walked the earth, Jesus became a servant) but yes Jesus and the Father are equal.
Answear to #9) That saying means that Jesus has two natures as the Bible teachs. He is like us because he has flesh. And lived with us for 33 years.
Answear to #10) (see answear to #4)
Now, let me ask you some questions. (countioued on next post, ran outta room)

Originally posted by Son of Man
(sorry for the double post)
I am not gonna answear all 10 of your questions (Sorry I really dont have time right now)ok, lets get started.

Originally posted by Son of Man
answear to 1)This question stems from a misconception about HOW Christians believe Jesus is God. We believe Jesus is God BY NATURE. We do NOT believe Jesus is the person of the Father! He can NOT be the Father, since He prayed to the Father in Jn. 17! He certainly wasn't praying to Himself. The Bible teaches that Jesus is God by NATURE, as is the Father and the Holy Spirit. There is only one true God by NATURE. See Gal. 4:8.

Originally posted by Son of Man
The Trinity is NOT defined as three Gods in one, but instead three Persons in one God. God is the NATURE of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Remember, Jesus isn't only God by nature, but also man! Jesus could die as any other human, because He became man (and still is man) besides being God by NATURE.

Originally posted by Son of Man
answear to 2) I guess you are pointing to Jn. 20:17. (that is one verse Jesus calls His Father God)Jesus said this as a man (he was still on Earth. Remember Jessu has two natures a human and divine).

Originally posted by Son of Man
This, however, doesn't change the clear evidence that shows Jesus is God. The Apostle Thomas called Jesus, "My Lord and my God," Jn. 20:28. The Greek literally says, "The Lord of me and the God of me." Remember also that Thomas was a strict monotheistic Jew. Was the Apostle Thomas "in the truth?" Obviously he was. Was the Apostle Thomas part of the early church? Obviously he was. Therefore, the early church believed that Jesus is God.

Originally posted by Son of Man
If you claim to believe and teach like the early church, then shouldn't you proclaim the same? Are you in the same "light" that the Apostles were in?

Originally posted by Son of Man
Furthermore, the Father identifies Jesus as "God" in Heb. 1:8. Again, the Greek says, "the God." Certainly the Father knows the true identity of the Son.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Also, Heb. 1:6 declares that "ALL the angels worship Him [Jesus]." Who do the angels worship, according to Rev. 19:10? According to Heb. 1:6, the angel of Rev. 19:10 WORSHIPS Jesus! In fact, Jesus' disciples WORSHIPED Him too (Matt. 28:9).

Originally posted by Son of Man
So, God the Father called Jesus God (Heb 1:8), So why would God (the Father) have a God (Jesus) since he call Jesus his God in Heb. 1:8?

🙂

Questions:1) In the Old Testament, He is the Child who is called ‘Mighty God’ and ‘Everlasting Father’ (Hebrew is literally ‘Father of Eternity’, meaning ‘Author of Eternity’) (Isaiah 9:6, cf. 10:21) He would be born in Bethlehem, yet His ‘goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.’ (Micah 5:2)
Why is Jesus described this way?
2. Not only do men worship Jesus, but angels are commanded to worship Him as well. Hebrews 1:6 speaks of Christ when it says, “And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.” In fact, angels, men and all creatures are commanded to bow down to Him and worship Him, “all shall bow to Him Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Philippians 2:9-11) This is also seen in Revelation 5:13, “And every creature which is in heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and such as are in the sea, and all that are in them, heard I saying, Blessing, and honour, and glory, and power, be unto him that sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb for ever and ever.” The Lamb, Jesus Christ, is worshipped forever and ever because he is God. Why is Jesus worshipped by everything?
3)Psalm 110:1 also attests to the dialogue between God and God. David writes, “The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.” Jesus uses this quite nicely against the Pharisees when he asks them how this could be David’s Lord and yet his son at the same time. The Messiah will be of the tribe of Judah, David’s son, yet David’s Lord. The wording here must also be noted. The literal translation says “Yahweh said to my Adonai…” The term “Yahweh” is God’s name, literally stated “I am.” Each time the designation Yahweh is used in the Bible through the Old Testament it refers to the “Great I AM”. The title “Adonai” is used in designating God’s supreme position as “Lord.” So Yahweh is speaking to Adonai. Here we see God speaking to God. How is this possibly if Jesus isnt God?
Last.)why is Jesus called Almighty (Rev. 1:8; Mt. 28:18) and God,JH.1:1?

You totally miss the point, huh.

Gal. 4:8 is a very important, key Scripture in understanding the doctrine of the Trinity. The Bible says:

"Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods."
By implication, we now know that there is one true God by nature. That true God which exists is Father, Son and Holy Spirit. All three persons are eternal, all-knowing, all-powerful and everywhere present.

Jesus is called God in the Bible, and in about half of John chapter 1 deals with Jesus NATURE. About the whole David thing, um the writer of Hebrews tells us that David s words were not his but Gods. So The father said this about the son.Yes Thomas was refering to Jesus the Greek text says (he said to him (Jesus) ). So he was calling Jesus Lord and God dont twist the the text. Oh and um, I answared your questions, you had 10, all I have is three could you please answear them? thanks.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #3)um, It kinda goes back to my answear to your second question. Jesus call's God his God, God the Father calls Jesus his God, it can be assumed that they are glorifing each other, as seen thoughout all of John Chapter 17.

And, would that mean that what God had declared before that He knows no other Gods is not applicable anymore? Would that mean He changed and went against His own words? 🙂

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #4)Philippians 2:5–11 states that Jesus had equality by nature with God, but voluntarily took on the lower position of a servant(only while he was on earth, but when he rose from the dead he was once aganin equal to the father). Remember Jesus has TWO natures. He can be tempted because he became a servant as Philippians 2:5–11 states. He came as a human so he he could (for a time ) be tempted.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #5) Because he is the only true God. Just as Jesus is called Lord, God, I AM, etc. The Father is the true God by nature. this dosent mean that Jesus is not God.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #6)This aganin, is a question that stems from ignorace of how Christians believe Jesus is God. We believe Jesus is God BY NATURE. Wee do NOT believe Jesus is the person of the Father. He can NOT be the Father, since He prayed to the Father in Jn. 17.He wasn't praying to Himself. The Bible teaches that Jesus is God by NATURE, as the Father and the Holy Spirit are.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #7)Jesus was makeing himself equal to God here. Well Jesus told his disciples this because they were monothestic jews and didnt have the understanding of the Trinty. So, Jesus is telling them that they belive in God, so also blive in Him showing that He is Divine.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #8)God is not greater than Jesus. For a period of tome (while Jesus walked the earth, Jesus became a servant) but yes Jesus and the Father are equal.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #9) That saying means that Jesus has two natures as the Bible teachs. He is like us because he has flesh. And lived with us for 33 years.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Answear to #10) (see answear to #4)

Consider my questions first, before we go on. 🙂

You are totally twisting the Bible and my words. When Jesus became like us he bore flesh, he lived with us.First I'll give you the definition of the Trinity, and then we'll work from there. The Bible teaches that within the nature of the one true God exists three separate and distinct persons: the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. They are co-equal in nature and co-eternal. The Trinity is NOT three gods in one. The Jehovah's Witnesses would say that the Trinity is defined as three gods in one. Christians definitely do not believe that the Trinity doctrine is three gods in one. All through the Old Testament and many times in the New, we clearly see there is but one true God.Gal. 4:8 is a very important, key Scripture in understanding the doctrine of the Trinity. The Bible says:
"Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods."
By implication, we now know that there is one true God by nature. That true God which exists is Father, Son and Holy Spirit. All three persons are eternal, all-knowing, all-powerful and everywhere present. Some people have their car as their god. Of course, that's a false god because that car is not eternal. That car is not all-powerful(a nature of God), all-knowing(a nature of God); and it's not everywhere present(a nature of God). Only the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit that we read of in the Holy Bible possess these four unique attributes. Therefore, they alone are by nature God.A good analogy for the Trinity is that space contains three dimensions, yet the dimensions are not ‘parts’ — the concept of ‘space’ is meaningless without all three dimensions.
Now let me make some truths:1.There is only one God (Deuteronomy 6:4, Isaiah 44:8). Note that the Hebrew word for ‘one’ is echad which means composite unity — it is used in Genesis 2:24 where the husband and wife become ‘one flesh’. The word for absolute unity is yachid which is never used of God in the Scripture.
2.The Father is called God (John 6:27, Ephesians 4:6). And The Son is called God (Hebrews 1:8. He is also called ‘I am’ in John 8:58 cf. Ex. 3:14 ). He has always existed (John 1:1–3, 8:56–58), but took on full human nature in addition to His divine nature at the Incarnation (John 1:14, Philippians 2:5–11). (countioued)

3.The Holy Spirit is called God (Acts 5:3–4), and is personal (Acts 13:2), not some impersonal force as the Jehovah’s Witness cult believes.
4.They are distinct, e.g. at the baptism of Jesus in Matthew 3:16–17 all three were present and distinct. The Son is baptized, the Father speaks from Heaven, and the Holy Spirit, in the form of a dove, flies down and lands on the Son. See the baptismal formula in Matthew 28:19 ‘baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.’ Note that the word ‘name’ is singular, showing that all three Persons are one Being.The distinction in persons within the one God means that it is possible for Jesus to be the ‘one mediator between God and men’ (1 Timothy 2:5), and to be our ‘advocate with the Father’ (1 John 2:1) when we sin. An advocate is a defence lawyer, who pleads our case before a judge. This demonstrates a distinction between the persons.
The distinction makes the Substitutionary Atonement possible. How else could Jesus be the One on whom the LORD has ‘laid … the iniquity of us all’ (Isaiah 53:6)? The one laying and the one on whom our sins are laid must be distinct.Jesus said that His Father sent Him (John 14:24) and that the Spirit was sent by both the Father (John 14:26) and the Son (John 15:7). This also points to distinct centres of consciousness within the one God.The fact that Jesus prayed to God the Father (John 17:1) shows there was a distinction between Father and Son. Since Jesus was fully human (as well as fully divine), and humans should pray, it follows that it was proper for Jesus to pray in His humanity.
Also, the deity of the Son, Jesus Christ, is further proved by the fact that He has natures belonging uniquely to God, e.g.:
He is the Creator (Colossians 1:16–17).
He has the ability to forgive sins (Luke 7:47–50) and judge all people (John 5:27).
He sends forth the Holy Spirit (John 15:26).
He accepts worship (Hebrews 1:6, Matthew 14:33)
He is called ‘Lord’ (Romans 10:9) where ‘Lord’ (kurios) is a translation of the Old Testament Yahweh (= God) (Romans 10:13 cites Joel 2:32 which makes this clear)
And Hhe is identified with the ‘Alpha and Omega’ and the equivalent ‘the first and the last’ (Revelation 1:8, 17–18, cf. Isaiah 44:6). (countioued)

Also, back to Thomas. This statement is clearly addressed to Jesus. Some claim Thomas spoke to the Father, but the passage clearly shows "Thomas answered and said to Him," i.e., to Jesus.
The word for God is theos with the definite article. According to their argument on John 1:1, even Jehovah's Witnesses must admit that this means the one true God, in the same sense as the Father.
If Jesus did not possess Deity, Thomas' statement would have been blasphemy, and Jesus should have rebuked Him. Instead, Jesus praised Thomas and pronounced a blessing on everyone who believes the same (v29)!
Note further that Thomas combined the terms "Lord" and "God" in a phrase of address to Jesus. These terms, when so combined in the Scriptures, are always a term of address for the True God.
The Father said to Son, "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever" (KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASB, RSV, NEB, NIV). This is a quotation from Psalm 45:6,7, which is translated exactly the same (KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASB, NIV).
Note that God the Father Himself is here addressing Jesus as "God" (cf. vv 1-9).
Further "God" here has the definite article so even people who dont belive in the Trinity must admit it refers to the one True God.
Psalm 102:24
"I said, O my God, Do not take me away..." Hebrews 1:10-12 directly quotes Psalm 102:25-27 and says that it was spoken "to the Son" (v8). The context of Psalm 102:24 shows it is clearly addressed to the same person addressed in vv 25-27.
Hence, in v24 Jesus is addressed as "O my God."
"For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily" (NKJV, KJV, ASV). Or: "For in Him all the fulness of Deity dwells in bodily form" (NASB, RSV, NIV is similar).
"Fulness" (plerooma) means " ... that which is brought to fulness or completion ... sum total, fulness, even (super) abundance ... of something ... the full measure of deity ... Colossians 2:9" "Godhead" or "Deity" (theotes) means: " ... the state of being God.

^If everyone is God then how can saying a person is God be blasphemy? There is more than one way to understand the words of Jesus.

Long time I talked to you Shaky. Jesus was monothesitic.

Originally posted by Son of Man
Long time I talked to you Shaky. Jesus was monothesitic.

And so am I.

😄 Nice to see you again.

Originally posted by Shakyamunison
And so am I.

:

So, the Bible clearly teach Jesus is God. 🙂 🙂 🙂

Christ never began as God nor ceased to be God. He always was and always will be God

Originally posted by HairyPooper
Christ never began as God nor ceased to be God. He always was and always will be God

Jesus didn't become diety until the Council of Nicea in 324 AD.

Originally posted by debbiejo
Jesus never said he was god...he just said the father and I are one...That could mean many things....

Jesus didn't become diety until the Council of Nicea in 324 AD.

So, man made Jesus god. 😱

Jesus was a hacker of life.. Like magicians, therefore: God hates Jesus.

Originally posted by Shakyamunison
So, man made Jesus god. 😱

Specifically, man of the my-religion-is-better-than-yours variety

God must be splittin' his sides with laughter. By now, it should be oh-so obvious why he created us and then hides away.
Why ruin the show!

Originally posted by Mindship
Specifically, man of the my-religion-is-better-than-yours variety

God must be splittin' his sides with laughter. By now, it should be oh-so obvious why he created us and then hides away.
Why ruin the show!

Yes, there are a lot of things that the M.G.I.B.T.Y.G. people can take credit for in this messed up world.