Circular Reasoning?

Started by Lord Urizen21 pages
Originally posted by sonnet
Jesus used the Torah. The Old Testament is basically the Torah translated and rearranged into groups of books. The Torah itself is also arranged into groups of books i.e The Prophets, etc. So the Old Testament in our Bible is the same as the scriptures that Jesus used and referred to when he was teaching. The New Testament contains Jesus's words(teachings) which is also the Father's (God's) words that Jesus came to bring us. When He said keep God's word in our thoughts and hearts, He referred to all of God's word - the scriptures of the Torah and His teachings. So I am not assuming any thing.

Eye for an eye - Old Testament

Turn the Other Cheek- New Testament

Enough of your assumptions !

I am so incredibly tempted to write up a whole essay on what the Bible says exactly about grace, the Law, and what is expected of us today.

It would be ignored, naturally, so I won't.

I am interested in reading it FeceMan, I know JIA was sent by god so it might be hard to top him.

Originally posted by FeceMan
I am so incredibly tempted to write up a whole essay on what the Bible says exactly about grace, the Law, and what is expected of us today.

It would be ignored, naturally, so I won't.

I doubt I'd be convinced even If I read it....

You summarized God's Grace already bro....non beleivers will suffer....that simple.

God is irrational according to those terms. Therefore he is unattractive and worth no glory in my opinion.

Originally posted by crazy
I am interested in reading it FeceMan, I know JIA was sent by god so it might be hard to top him.

*Rolls eyes.*

You're telling me.

I'll shorten it up for you:

1. Christians are under grace right now, i.e., our sins are forgiven and we don't have to obey the laws in the Old Testament.

2. Some people might choose to obey the laws in the Old Testament, and we aren't to look down on them for obeying them and they aren't to look down on us for not obeying them.

3. The ritualistic nature of the Law has been abolished--more or less--but sin itself has not, which is why things spoken against in the Old Testament are still sinful today.

Originally posted by sonnet
Jesus used the Torah. The Old Testament is basically the Torah translated and rearranged into groups of books. The Torah itself is also arranged into groups of books i.e The Prophets, etc. So the Old Testament in our Bible is the same as the scriptures that Jesus used and referred to when he was teaching. The New Testament contains Jesus's words(teachings) which is also the Father's (God's) words that Jesus came to bring us. When He said keep God's word in our thoughts and hearts, He referred to all of God's word - the scriptures of the Torah and His teachings. So I am not assuming any thing.

The truth.

👆

Originally posted by crazy
I am interested in reading it FeceMan, I know JIA was sent by god so it might be hard to top him.

Don't be so silly. JIA was not sent by god. He came here on his own.

Or since JIA is part god...maybe god did send him 😉

Originally posted by Emo?
My science teacher told me that when one looks for someone to have sex with, they look for someone who looks like them so then the kids look like them.

So how could what i have heard be true if the DNA wouldn't even combine when they meet? 😖 what if the DNA is almost that similar? 😖

Ah you sure they were a teacher and not a drunken person in the gutter?

There are a lot of theories about what organisms are seeking in a matting partner (including humans) in terms of beneficial genetics but wanting the child to be almost clone like in appearance is not really one of them.

Are you sure you haven't somehow muddled eugenics with reproduction?

Originally posted by sonnet
Jesus used the Torah. The Old Testament is basically the Torah translated and rearranged into groups of books. The Torah itself is also arranged into groups of books i.e The Prophets, etc. So the Old Testament in our Bible is the same as the scriptures that Jesus used and referred to when he was teaching. The New Testament contains Jesus's words(teachings) which is also the Father's (God's) words that Jesus came to bring us. When He said keep God's word in our thoughts and hearts, He referred to all of God's word - the scriptures of the Torah and His teachings. So I am not assuming any thing.

so, how does one explain the glaring differences between the laws of the old testament and the new testament? What? God reconsidered his attitude? Not very all knowing of him.

Originally posted by JesusIsAlive
The truth.

👆

which version of the truth are you celebrating?

Originally posted by Capt_Fantastic
so, how does one explain the glaring differences between the laws of the old testament and the new testament? What? God reconsidered his attitude? Not very all knowing of him.

The Law clearly prepares the way for Jesus. Also, OT prophecy predicts the replacement of the Law with a new covenant. God always intended to change the Law.

Originally posted by Nellinator
The Law clearly prepares the way for Jesus. Also, OT prophecy predicts the replacement of the Law with a new covenant. God always intended to change the Law.

wow, that's a non-argument. How are the specifics of selling your daughter into slavery or sacrificing farm animals preparing the way for Jesus? Again, a new covenant implies that there is something wrong with the old one. So, the question still remains: What caused this shift in god's all-knowing and timeless attitude? Did he create the first covenant just to see how responsive those perople were? And that the second batch would be better equipted to deal with a less harsh god? These are all still Jews we're talking about. I mean, the difference between a jew of the time and a christian is: "I have good news! God's not a prick anymore!" That was teh message they'd been waiting on since the messiah was first prophecized?

Originally posted by Capt_Fantastic
wow, that's a non-argument. How are the specifics of selling your daughter into slavery or sacrificing farm animals preparing the way for Jesus? Again, a new covenant implies that there is something wrong with the old one. So, the question still remains: What caused this shift in god's all-knowing and timeless attitude? Did he create the first covenant just to see how responsive those perople were? And that the second batch would be better equipted to deal with a less harsh god? These are all still Jews we're talking about. I mean, the difference between a jew of the time and a christian is: "I have good news! God's not a prick anymore!" That was teh message they'd been waiting on since the messiah was first prophecized?

Somewhat. You must look at the requirements of the Law and Judaic customs. All covenants must be sealed in blood and all sin must be repayed with blood. Jesus fulfills both these requirements and removes the need for repeated sacrifices by his perfection. Jesus is also the fulfillment of the Passover lamb. God knew that the people must realize the need for a perfect blood covenant before they could properly use it.

So what your saying is Jesus as a Type O negative allows the Bible to contradict itself numerous times?

Originally posted by xmarksthespot
So what your saying is Jesus as a Type O negative allows the Bible to contradict itself numerous times?

The Bible does not contradict itself. You only perceive them as contradictions. However, this is not the place for it. It is being discussed elsewhere, so take it there please.

Originally posted by Nellinator
Somewhat. You must look at the requirements of the Law and Judaic customs. All covenants must be sealed in blood and all sin must be repayed with blood. Jesus fulfills both these requirements and removes the need for repeated sacrifices by his perfection. Jesus is also the fulfillment of the Passover lamb. God knew that the people must realize the need for a perfect blood covenant before they could properly use it.

So, you're saying that Jesus, a jew, knew that the only way to "seal the deal" was with a blood sacrifice? Then why, as a member of the original holy spirit that created the world and knew everything as the "father knew it", ask why the father had forsaken him? It seems a pointless question when you're supposed to know the answer already. And further, if the Jews are god's "chosen people", then why are they not on the same page as the christians? Or, was god wrong about his chosen people too? Or maybe he knew that out of this certain group, only a few would figure it out and follow Jesus. So, after the Romans and the greeks became christian, were the jews still his chosen people? Because someone should really let them in on the joke.

But, you know what it sounds like to me? It sounds to me like you're repeating answers to questions that are hundreds of years old. Answers that still don't make any sense in god's flawless exisitence. But, see that's the catch 22. If you don't buy it, you can't understand it. To that, I say, if you can't understand it, it's because you didn't make it up in the first place.

Originally posted by Capt_Fantastic
So, you're saying that Jesus, a jew, knew that the only way to "seal the deal" was with a blood sacrifice? Then why, as a member of the original holy spirit that created the world and knew everything as the "father knew it", ask why the father had forsaken him? It seems a pointless question when you're supposed to know the answer already. And further, if the Jews are god's "chosen people", then why are they not on the same page as the christians? Or, was god wrong about his chosen people too? Or maybe he knew that out of this certain group, only a few would figure it out and follow Jesus. So, after the Romans and the greeks became christian, were the jews still his chosen people? Because someone should really let them in on the joke.

But, you know what it sounds like to me? It sounds to me like you're repeating answers to questions that are hundreds of years old. Answers that still don't make any sense in god's flawless exisitence. But, see that's the catch 22. If you don't buy it, you can't understand it. To that, I say, if you can't understand it, it's because you didn't make it up in the first place.


The Jews are not longer Jesus's chosen people.
Why did Jesus cry out? I don't have a full answer for that. However, Jesus was both man and God and I believe that was the man crying out in his suffering. Remember that Jesus 'emptied' himself before going to the cross. I believe it to be more of an internal conflict than the external conflict that it is often perceived as.
And God's existence is flawless. Ours, however, are not. God knew this would happen, and therefore created a way that we could be brought back to where he intended us to be.

It's all good. Marchello is here to properly educate us.

Originally posted by Capt_Fantastic
It's all good. Marchello is here to properly educate us.

I saw that too. We shall see...