Originally posted by Bardock42
I am not sure what you mean. I am a sceptic. I am not ever 100% convinced of anything. I will be convinced that my analysis about whether they are atheist or not is relatively correct when I can be pretty sure that they either don't believe in God or do not know what a God is. What "good" and "bad" have to do with that I am not sure.
I disagree with your assertion that some terms can apply, while others can't. Terms are either factual, or they are just words.
Originally posted by Bardock42
I would still be pretty convinced that from an absolute basis they are neutral. Because I don't know of or believe in an absolute moral code.
Some people don't beleive neutrality exists *cough* Regret *cough*
So how do you know neutrality actually exists as an absolute ?
Originally posted by Bardock42
The word is defined as something. i go by that definition. Good and bad are defined as well, but in a way that involves an absolute measurement that in my opinion does not exist. What is your trouble understanding that? And the term atheist applies to them. I don't see your problem. One does not need to have a grasp or knowledge of a concept for it to apply to them. I mean you were bisexual before you knew the word, right? And it applied to you before you knew it.
Atheism is not absolute, however. That's what I'm trying to get you to understand. Who makes it absolute ? If Good and Evil are only subjective terms, what makes Atheism absolute ?
Yes, I was bisexual before I knew the word....however, if sexuality was NOT classified into categories such as "bisexual, heterosexual, homosexual" than, NO, the term would NOT apply since the term would not exist.
The word Bisexual didn't even exist over a century ago.
But that's besides the point. I understand that Atheism, in one definition of the word, can be applicable to all who do not beleive in God, but NOT as an absolute.
If a person does not consider themselves Atheist, than you cannot factually claim they are Atheist, especially if they can't even relate to the concept.
Originally posted by Bardock42
As things they are atheistic. Sure. But we usually refer only to people as atheist. If you want to call inanimate object that as well though, I am not opposed. They fit the definition. They are in fact Godless due to their lack of knowledge of God.
This is where I begin laughing. You cannot term a plant, or rock, or dead person, or newborn child an "atheist" because they are incapable of being EITHER Atheist or Theist.
The terms Theist and Athiest can only be validly applied to a person who CAN be either or. If a person NEVER has the chance to BE a Theist (by not knowing about the idea of God), then they cannot be Athiest either.
Originally posted by Bardock42
No it is not. It is the correct definition. You want it to apply only to those that are opposed to Religion. You may wish that, but it is not the actual definition. Stop trying to change the English language. it is doing quite fine without you.
Not opposed to religion....just those who do not beleive, after exposure to the idea.
IT IS the ACTUAL DEFINITION, XYZ even brought it up himself with that stupid google link.
What absolute basis are you using to define one as Atheist, btw ? A website ? Like that is somehow more valid than the concepts of Good and Evil... 😆
Originally posted by Bardock42
"Good" and "bad" need a moral code that I don't believe in. Or know of. By the way, you don't know of it either, to be fair. Atheism does not. They are different things.
Good and Evil have moral codes, it just so happens that none of those codes can be claimed as collective Fact, since everyone's moral codes conflict.
Atheism, however, is a term applicable to the concept of God. That is the BASIS, that is what it RELIES on...without the concept of God, Atheism does not exist.
The same way, without the CONCEPT of SEX, bisexuality does not exist.
Originally posted by Bardock42
Of course, relative moral probably exists. I don't deny that people can seem good or bad to me. Or you, Or Hitler. I never denied that. I denied that "good" and "bad" are absolute terms that relate to people regardless of subjective opinions. Atheism applies to them because they fit the description of the word, not because you might think they are atheists.
Morality exists. Just not as an absolute or uniform entity. You know that personal morality exists for sure. If the definition of Atheism applies to those who fit your definition, and you claim it as FACT, then how can the terms "good" or "evil" not factually apply?
What BASIS of Absolutivity are you trying to use here ?
Originally posted by Bardock42
Nothing can be factual.
This should END IT right here. Thereby, the term Athiest, according to this statement, is meaningless, and cannot factually apply.
Which is it Bardock ? Does the term apply or not ?
Originally posted by Bardock42
I am not dealing in absolutes. And "good" or "bad" are not terms relating to the concept of morality. But specific "morality". Atheism relates to the concept. Difference.
"Good" and "Bad" are terms that relate to the concept of Morality. In fact, that's what MORALITY consists of....the concepts of good and bad. Without the ideas of good and bad, morality does not exist.
Atheism DOES relate to the concept of God...yes....congradulations Bardock, your tiny brain achieved knowledge ! So, since you admitted that Atheism applies to the concept of God, then you must also realize that without the concept of God, Atheism cannot apply ! 😄
Originally posted by Bardock42
I mean I know you won't understand. You are not smart enough. But maybe others in this thread will get what I mean. I have great hope that lil b might. You are more of a lost case.
Oh I understand what you are saying, but your logic is flawed.